# DOKUMEN NEGARA SANGAT RAHASIA

18  19

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## UJIAN NASIONAL

### Pukul 10.00 – 12.00

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PETUNJUK UMUM

1. Perhatikan dan ikuti petunjuk pengisian pada lembar jawaban yang disediakan! 2. Periksa dan bacalah soal-soal sebelum Anda menjawabnya!

3. Jumlah soal sebanyak 60 butir, setiap butir soal terdiri atas 4 (empat) pilihan jawaban! 4. Laporkan kepada pengawas ujian kalau terdapat tulisan yang kurang jelas, rusak atau

jumlah soal kurang!

5. Mintalah kertas buram kepada pengawas ujian, bila diperlukan!

6. Periksalah pekerjaan Anda sebelum diserahkan kepada pengawas ujian!

7. Tidak diizinkan menggunakan, kalkulator, kamus, hp, tabel matematika, atau alat bantu hitung lainnya!

### Listening Section

In this section of the test, you will have the chance to show how well you understand spoken English. There are four parts to this section, with special directions for each part.

### PART I

Directions: For each question, you will see a picture in your test book and you will hear four short statements. These statements will be spoken just one time. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speaker says.

When you hear the four statements, look at the picture in your test book and choose the statement that best describes what you see in the picture. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and mark your answer. Look at the sample below.

Now, listen to the four statements. Sample Answer

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1.

2.

3.

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### PART II

Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear a question spoken in English, followed by three responses, also spoken in English. The question and the responses will be spoken just one time. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers say. You have to choose the best response to each question.

Now listen to a sample question. You will hear:

Sample Answer You will also hear:

The best response to the question “How are you?” is choice (a), “I am fine, thank you.” Therefore, you should choose answer (a).

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### PART III

Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear five short conversations. The conversations will not be printed in your test book. You will hear the conversations only once, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers say.

16. What is about to happen the following morning? a. The man will call again.

b. Mr. Allan will call Harry.

c. The woman will tell Mr. Allan tomorrow morning. d. Mr. Harry will call again.

d. Look for another supplier.

20. What did John think about opening a new branch? a. He was pessimistic on it.

b. It will be a great success.

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### PART IV

Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear several short talks. Each will be spoken just one time. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand and remember what is said.

In your test book, you will read two or more questions about each short talk. The questions will be followed by four answers. You are to choose the best answer to each question and mark it on your answer sheet.

21. Borobudur was established .... a. in the north of Java b. to the south of Yogya

c. in the southern part of Central Java d. to the west of Yogya

22. Prambanan Temple was built by .... a. Sanjaya Dynasty b. Syailendra Dynasty c. Sriwijaya Kingdom d. Buddhists

23. Before pressing the power button in front of the television, we should .... a. plug the cable in

b. press the power button c. check the aerial connection d. check the video source 24. If there is no sound, ....

a. turn the TV off

b. check the aerial connection c. press the + volume button d. press the – volume button 25. What position is needed?

a. Secretary. b. Importer. c. Exporter. d. Sales manager. 26. Which qualification is not urgent?

a. Good command of English. b. Computer literate. c. Creative.

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27. What thing should be included on your application letter? a. Computer’s file.

b. Telephone number. c. Creativity.

d. ID card.

28. How long has Hotel Indonesia been operated? a. More or less 30 years.

b. Less than 32 years. c. Exactly 35 years. d. More than 40 years.

29. What was the special thing about Hotel Indonesia?

a. It was the first international standard luxury hotel in Indonesia. b. It was the national standard hotel.

c. The standard of the hotel was regional.

d. The location was in the capital city of Indonesia.

30. Hotel Indonesia is taking a step down in its appearance because it is .... a. located in the middle of Jakarta

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In this section of the test, you will have a chance to show how well you understand written English. There are three parts to this section, with special directions for each part.

### PART V

Directions: Questions 31-42 are incomplete sentences. Four words or phrases, marked (a), (b), (c), (d), are given beneath each sentence. You have to choose one word or phrase that best completes the sentence. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and mark your answer.

Now, begin to work on the questions.

31. The last sentence he wrote on his letter was that he sent ... regards to all his friends and colleagues.

a. well b. big c. good d. warm

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34. Playing together with Mr. Sofyan, Johan’s performance at the Exhibition got a positive ....

37. Neither lunch ... dinner was served at the hotel. a. or

b. and c. but d. nor

38. The doctor carefully examined patients … heads had been injured in an accident. a. that

b. whom c. who d. whose

39. Education in Indonesia is the ... of school, government and society. a. responsible

b. responsive c. responsibly d. responsibility

40. New products ... in the electronic exhibition in Jakarta Expo Centre a week ago. a. display

b. displaying c. were displayed d. is displayed

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42. Yusuf Kalla who comes from South Sulawesi is one of the ... people in eastern Indonesia.

Directions: In questions 43 – 50, each sentence has four words or phrases underlined. The four underlined parts of the sentence are marked (A), (B), (C), (D). You have to identify one underlined word or phrase that should be corrected or rewritten. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and mark your answer.

Example: Sample Answer We wish we can come to see you soon.

A B C D

The underlined word “can” is not correct in this sentence. This sentence should read, “We wish we could come to see you soon.” Therefore, you should choose answer (C).

Now, begin to work on the questions.

43. Many children could not go to school because economic reasons and the distance between A B C D their home and schools.

44. After finishing my study here, I do not continue studying at a university. A B C D 45. Mr. Smith lives in Paris for ten years, but now he is living in Rome.

A B C D

46. Mr. Tanaka would be fired if he had not finished his project before the due date. A B C D 47. Scholarships are provided for students which get the first and second rank.

A B C D

48. Every customer are served very well in the shop, that is why, it is always full. A B C D 49. They asked me to copy the report, but I told them to do theirselves.

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50. Everyone must impress by the beautiful scenery of the island and want to come back A B C

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### PART VII

Paul will exhibit his own painting collection from 23rd June to 27th June at the Art Center. The exhibition will be open from 9 a.m. to 4 p.m. Visitors are encouraged to display their own painting and ask Paul for advices for free on their works. However, this can only be done after lunch time only. Tickets are on sale for Rp. 5.000, and 25% discount for children under 6.

b. 10 a.m. c. 2 p.m. d. 6 p.m.

The reading selection says that visitors are encouraged to ask Paul for advices for free after lunch time. Lunch time is usually from 12 midday to 1 p.m. Therefore, you should choose answer (c).

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Questions 51 – 52 refer to the following letter:

GRACIA DUTA VICTORY AGENCY

Jl. Pemuda 59 Denpasar 55168 Iwan Santoso,

Arjuna Ceramic

Jl. Bima no. 315 Yogyakarta 31167 Dear Mr. Santoso,

Thank you very much for the fast delivery of the pots we ordered. I, however, feel far from satisfied as half of the pots are damaged.

I would be grateful if you could send me new ones at absolutely no cost to replace the damaged ones. I would suggest that you handle the delivery more carefully to avoid damage.

Sincerely, Wanda Hamidah 51. What is Ms Wanda Hamidah complaining in her letter?

a. Arjuna Ceramic.

b. Pernak-pernik Collection. c. The damage of the goods.

d. A member of Mr Iwan’s staff.

52. How does Ms. Hamidah want the firm to respond to her letter? a. By replacing the damaged goods.

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AVAILABLE AT ANY DRUGSTORES 53. People buy these food supplements for their ....

a. health

b. nature’s health c. wellness

d. health and beauty 54. To get a maximum effect, it’s better to ....

a. eat one capsule everyday

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Questions 56 – 57 refer to the following passage.

The internet is expected to account for US \$ 96 billion in retail sales in 2003 in the United States, 30 percent of them will be for travel according to a survey released on Thursday. Forester Research said travel services – including airline tickets, hotel, and car rentals – will account for some \$ 27 billion in on line sales a year. The survey indicated that despite the bursting of the dot.com bubble, internet e-commerce will reach nearly \$230 billion, or roughly the sales of number one global retailer Wal-Mart today. More than 10 percent of all US retail sales will be on line by 2008, the market research firm predicted.

(The Jakarta Post. July 31, 2003)

56. What can we find from this passage? a. Internet sales keep decreasing. b. Internet sales keep growing. c. Internet is getting more interesting. d. Internet business is unprofitable. 57. “them” in the first sentence refers to ... a. the internet

b. US \$96 billion c. retail sales

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Questions 58 – 60 refer to the following passage

Bond consists of four talented girls: Haylie Ecker, Eos (pronounced Ay-os), Tania Davis, and Gay-Yee Westerhoff. Since their childhood these four girls have been acquainted with music. In Perth, Haylie had her first violin when she was five and showed her virtuosity by playing her nimble fingers on it. In Sydney, Tani Davis practiced her first notes on piano and violin. In Cardiff, Wales, Eos used her first bow as her toy, while in Hull, United Kingdom, Gay-Yee learned piano.

Time passed by, and as the four girls grew up, they honed their skill in music and gained degrees in it. Haylie holds a first class degree from the Guildhall School of Music and Drama and has already played around the world extensively as a soloist. Eos received her degree from the Royal College of Music and has played in front of the Queen and former Prime Ministers of Australia and Ireland. Tania holds a first class honours degree in music from the Sydney Conservatorium and has just obtained the postgraduate diploma in performance from the college that Haylie went to. Meanwhile, Gay-Yee, who switched her musical instrument from piano to cello, attended Trinity College of Music in London.

58. What is the main idea of the reading passage above? a. Bond’s musical development.

b. Bond’s performance. c. The bond Origin.

d. The bond Albums.

59. Where did Haylie get her first class honours degree from? a. Royal College of Music.

b. Trinity College of Music. c. Guildhall School of Music.

d. Sydney Conservatorium.

60. What is the synonym of the word honed in paragraph 2 line 1? a. Sharpened.

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