1. A. The woman and the man have plans to eat out together.
B. The woman would prefer to stay home this evening.
C. The man has changed his mind about the new restaurant.
D. The man is sorry he cannot join the woman for dinner.
2. A. A plane trip.
B. A rental car.
C. A hotel room.
D. Concert tickets.
3. A. The woman did not remember her appointment.
B. The woman needs to get a calendar.
C. The appointment must be changed to a different day.
D. The calendar shows the wrong month.
4. A. The woman should continue driving.
B. They will arrive late for dinner.
C. He forgot to make reservations.
D. He is not sure what is wrong with the car.
5. A. She did not realize that their team had won.
B. Their team nearly lost the game.
C. She called to find out the score of the game.
D. Their team usually wins its games.
6. A. Join him and Mary at the movie.
B. Ask Mary what she is doing tonight.
C. Invite a group of friends to go to the movie.
D. Tell Mary about the movie.
7. A. Professor Campbell changed the conference time.
B. He is planning to stay until the conference is finished.
C. He will not attend the concert.
D. He will wait for the woman.
8. A. She recently purchased laundry detergent.
B. She will buy some detergent for the man.
C. The Laundromat is around the corner.
D. The man can buy detergent at the store.
Saya yang membaca file ini berjanji kepada Allah akan memberikan bucket bunga pada saat sartika sidang semhas/kompre/yudisium/wisuda.
9. A. It is next to the Holiday Motel.
B. It is nicer than the Holiday Motel.
C. It is very inexpensive.
D. It is a little farther than the Holiday Motel.
10. A. She does not believe it will snow.
B. Snow in October is unusual.
C. Canadian winters are rather long.
D. Winter is her favorite season.
11. A. He lost his wallet on a trip to Germany.
B. His private lessons did not help him.
C. His German tutor charges a reasonable fee.
D. He plans to continue taking lessons.
12. A. The committee has just begun to write the report.
B. The report will be short.
C. The committee members have just become acquainted.
D. The report is finished except for the introduction.
13. A. They should play another time.
B. They will probably have to play in the gym.
C. He prefers to play in the gym D. It is not supposed to rain tomorrow.
14. A. Type the letter as it is.
B. Change some wording in his letter.
C. Send the letter without typing it.
D. Check to make sure his facts are correct.
15. A. The woman should call the professor the next day.
B. He is canceling the choir rehearsal because of illness.
C. The woman will feel better in a day or two.
D. He will turn up the heat in the choir room.
16. A. They should take another route to the bank.
B. They turned onto the wrong road.
C. The man will get to the bank before it closes.
D. The bank will open soon.
17. A. Go out to eat when the museum closes.
B. Check that the museum cafeteria is open.
C. Leave the museum temporarily D. Meet each other later in the day.
18. A. The woman should have thrown out the newspapers herself.
B. He does not know where her paper is.
C. The woman's paper is in the trash.
D. He does not have time to help her look for her paper.
19. A. The woman can make her call tomorrow.
B. There is a problem with the woman's telephone.
C. The airline's offices are closed.
D. He does not know what the problem could be.
20. A. He is very hungry.
B. He has made plans to eat with someone else.
C. He did not like what he ate for lunch.
D. He will go with the woman.
21. A. She is proud of the man.
B. She does not want to see the man's test.
C. She also got a good grade.
D. She has not taken the test yet.
22. A. He will tell the woman what to do.
B. The meeting will have to be postponed.
C. He will get the job done if he gets some instruction.
D. He will need to throw away most of the papers.
23. A. Find another sociology course.
B. Look for a job in the sociology department.
C. Ask someone to take notes for her on Friday.
D. Change her work schedule.
24. A. She can help the man until lunchtime.
B. She cannot read the applications until after her class.
C. She has a class after lunch.
D. She also plans to apply to graduate school.
25. A. Mary will trim her hedge.
B. Phil has a better chance of winning.
C. Mary will win the election.
D. Phil will sit on the ledge.
26. A. He thinks the woman's computer is broken.
B. He worked on the woman's computer for too long.
C. He sometimes gets headaches after doing computer work.
D. He needs to take a longer break.
27. A. The library closed earlier than she expected.
B. She could not find a birthday present.
C. She picked Jack up at the golf course.
D. The bookstore did not have what she was looking for.
28. A. The equipment has already been locked up.
B. The woman should be more careful with the equipment.
C. He knows how to operate the equipment.
D. He will put the equipment away.
29. A. The man did not give the woman notes she needed.
B. The man's notes were hard to understand.
C. The woman wants to borrow the man's sociology notes.
D. The woman has to organize her psychology notes.
30. A. The man will find a job if he continues to look.
B. The man should look for a job in a different field.
C. The man can get a job where the woman works.
D. The man should keep his current job.
31. A. She will be able to join the economics seminar.
B. She has a new printer for her computer.
C. She finished paying back her loan.
D. She got an A on her term paper.
32. A. The importance of paying back loans promptly.
B. A way to help people improve their economic conditions.
C. Using computers to increase business efficiency.
D. The expansion of international business.
33. A. It is the topic of his term paper.
B. He would like to find a job there.
C. His economics professor did research work there.
D. Microcredit programs have been very successful there.
34. A. Cancel her credit card.
B. Sign up for the economics seminar.
C. Do research on banks in Asia.
D. Type the man's term paper.
35. A. The life of a well-known Canadian architect.
B. The architectural design of a new museum.
C. The variety of museums in Washington, D.C.
D. The changing function of the modern museum.
36. A. Both were designed by the same architect.
B. Both are located in Washington, D.C.
C. Both feature similar exhibits.
D. Both were built around a central square.
37. A. A classical temple.
B. A well-known museum.
C. A modern office building.
D. A natural landscape.
38. A. Traditional views on the purpose of a museum.
B. Traditional values of Native Americans.
C. Traditional notions of respect for elected leaders.
D. Traditional forms of classical architecture.
39. A. They are examples of the usual sequence of observation and explanation.
B. They provide evidence of inaccurate scientific observation.
C. Their discovery was similar to that of the neutrino.
D. They were subjects of 1995 experiments at Los Alamos.
40. A. Its mass had previously been measured.
B. Its existence had been reported by Los Alamos National Laboratory.
C. Scientists were looking for a particle with no mass.
D. Scientists were unable to balance equations of energy without it.
41. A. That it carries a large amount of energy.
B. That it is a type of electron.
C. That it is smaller in size than previously th ought.
D. That it has a tiny amount of mass.
42. A. The clearing of New England forests.
B. The role of New England trees in British shipbuilding.
C. The development of the shipbuilding industry in New England.
D. The role of the British surveyor general in colonizing New England.
43. A. Law.
B. Mathematics.
C. History.
D. Engineering.
44. A. Sugar maple.
B. Oak.
C. White pine.
D. Birch.
45. A. Its width.
B. Its height.
C. Its straightness.
D. Its location.
46. A. M B. % C. K D. ->
47. A. How they swim long distances.
B. How they got their name.
C. How they hunt.
D. How they solve problems.
48. A. By changing its appearance.
B. By imitating signals that the other spiders send.
C. By spinning a large web.
D. By imitating insects caught in a web.
49. A. Avoid attacks by other spiders.
B. Cross some water.
C. Jump to the edge of the tray.
D. Spin a long thread.
50. A. It would keep trying to reach the rock the same way.
B. It would try to reach the rock a different way.
C. The scientists would move the spider to the rock.
D. The scientists would place another spider in the tray.
READING
A seventeenth-century theory of burning proposed that anything that burns must contain material that the theorists called "phlogiston". Burning was explained as the release of phlogiston from the combustible material to the air. Air was thought essential, since it had to provide a home for the released phlogiston. There would be a limit to the phlogiston transfer, since a given volume of air could absorb only so much phlogiston. When the air had become saturated, no additional amounts of phlogiston could leave the combustible substance, and the burning would stop. Burning would also stop when the combustible substance was emptied of all its phlogiston.
Although the phlogiston theory was self-consistent, it was awkward because it required that imaginative, even mysterious, properties be ascribed to phlogiston. Phlogiston was elusive. No one had ever isolated it and experimentally determined its properties. At times it seemed to show a negative weight: the residue left after burning weighed more than the material before burning.
This was true, for example, when magnesium burned. Sometimes phlogiston seemed to show a positive weight: when, for example, wood burned, the ash weighed less than the starting material.
And since so little residue was left when alcohol, kerosene, or high-grade coal burned, these obviously different materials were thought to be pure or nearly pure phlogiston.
In the eighteenth century, Antoine Lavoisier, on the basis of careful experimentation, was led to
propose a different theory of burning, one that required a constituent of air-later shown to be
oxygen-for combustion. Since the weight of the oxygen is always added, the weight of the products
of combustion, including the evolved gases, would always be greater than the weight of the starting
material.
Lavoisier's interpretation was more reasonable and straightforward than that of the phlogiston theorists. The phlogiston theory, always clumsy, became suspect, eventually fell into scientific disrepute, and was replaced by new ideas.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
(A) The chemical composition of phlogiston.
(B) Attempts to explain what happens when materials burn (C) Limitations of seventeenth-century scientific theories (D) The characteristics of the residue left after fires
2. The word "it" in line 4 refers to (A) burning
(B) phlogiston
(C) combustible material (D) air
3. The word "properties" in line 10 is closest in meaning to (A) interpretations
(B) locations (C) characteristics (D) virtues
4. The author mentions magnesium in line 14 as an example of a substance that (A) seemed to have phlogiston with a negative weight
(B) leaves no residue after burning
(C) was thought to be made of nearly pure phlogiston D) was thought to contain no phlogiston
5. Which of the following is true of both the phlogiston theory of burning and Lavoisier's theory of burning?
(A) Both theories propose that total weight always increases during burning.
(B) Both theories are considered to be reasonable and straightforward
(C) Both theories have difficulty explaining why residue remains after burning (D) Both theories recognize that air is important to combustion.
Iron production was revolutionized in the early eighteenth century when coke was first used instead of charcoal for refining iron ore. Previously the poor quality of the iron had restricted its use in architecture to items such as chains and tie bars for supporting arches, vaults, and walls.
With the improvement in refining ore, it was now possible to make cast-iron beams, columns, and girders. During the nineteenth century further advances were made, notably Bessemer's process for converting iron into steel, which made the material more commercially viable.
Iron was rapidly adopted for the construction of bridges, because its strength was far greater than that of stone or timber, but its use in the architecture of buildings developed more slowly. By 1800 a complete internal iron skeleton for buildings had been developed in industrial architecture replacing traditional timber beams, but it generally remained concealed. Apart from its low cost, the appeal of iron as a building material lay in its strength, its resistance to fire, and its potential to span vast areas. As a result, iron became increasingly popular as a structural material for more traditional styles of architecture during the nineteenth century, but it was invariably concealed.
Significantly, the use of exposed iron occurred mainly in the new building types spawned by the Industrial Revolution: in factories, warehouses, commercial offices, exhibition hall, and railroad stations, where its practical advantages far outweighed its lack of status. Designers of the railroad stations of the new age explored the potential of iron, covering huge areas with spans that surpassed the great vaults of medieval churches and cathedrals. Paxton's Crystal Palace, designed to house the Great Exhibition of 1851, covered an area of 1.848 feet by 408 feet in prefabricated units of glass set in iron frames. The Paris Exhibition of 1889 included both the widest span and the greatest height achieved so far with the Halle Des Machines, spanning 362 feet, and the Eiffel Tower 1,000 feet high. However, these achievements were mocked by the artistic elite of Paris as expensive and ugly follies. Iron, despite its structural advantages, had little aesthetic status. The use of an exposed iron structure in the more traditional styles of architecture was slower to develop
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
(A) Advances in iron processing in the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries
(B) The effects of the Industrial Revolution on traditional architectural styles
(C) Advantages of stone and timber over steel as a building material (D) The evolution of the use of iron in architecture during the 1800's
2. Iron replaced stone and timber in the building of bridges because iron was considered (A) more beautiful
(B) new and modern (C) much stronger (D) easier to transport
3. The word "appeal" in line 12 is closest in meaning to (A) adjustment
(B) assignment (C) attraction (D) attempt
3. It can be inferred that the delayed use of exposed iron structures in traditional styles of architecture is best explained by the
(A) impracticality of using iron for small, noncommercial buildings
(B) association of iron architecture with the problems of the Industrial Revolution
(C) general belief that iron offered less resistance to fire and harsh weather than traditional materials
(D) general perception that iron structures were not aesthetically pleasing 4. The paragraph following the passage most probably discusses
(A) the gradual inclusion of exposed iron in traditional styles of architecture (B) further improvements in iron processing methods
(C) the return to traditional building materials for use in commercial structures (D) the decreased use of stone and timber as a building material
The most easily recognizable meteorites are the iron variety, although they only represent
about 5 percent of all meteorite falls. They are composed of iron and nickel along with sulfur,
carbon, and traces of other elements. Their composition is thought to be similar to that of Earth’s
iron core, and indeed they might have once made up the core of a large planetoid that disintegrated
long ago. Due to their dense structure, iron meteorites have the best chance of surviving an impact, and most are found by farmers plowing their fields.
One of the best hunting grounds for meteorites is on the glaciers of Antarctica, where the dark stones stand out in stark contrast to the white snow and ice. When meteorites fall on the continent, they are embedded in the moving ice sheets. At places where the glaciers move upward against mountain ranges, meteorites are left exposed on the surface. Some of the meteorites that have landed in Antarctica are believed to have come from the Moon and even as far away as Mars, when large impacts blasted out chunks of material and hurled them toward Earth.
Perhaps the world's largest source of meteorites is the Nullarbor Plain, an area of limestone that stretches for 400 miles along the southern coast of Western and South Australia. The pale, smooth desert plain provides a perfect backdrop for spotting meteorites, which are usually dark brown of black. Since very little erosion takes place, the meteorites are well preserved and are found just where they landed. Over 1,000 fragments from 150 meteorites that fell during the last 20,000 years have been recovered. One large iron meteorite, called the Mundrabilla meteorite, weighed more than 11 tons.
Stony meteorites, called chondrites, are the most common type and make up more than 90 percent of all falls. But because they are similar to Earth materials and therefore erode easily, they are often difficult to find. Among the most ancient bodies in the solar system are the carbonaceous chondrites that also contain carbon compounds that might have been the precursors of life on Earth.
1. What is the passage mainly about?
(A) Finding meteorites on Earth's surface
2. The word "core" in line 4 is closest in meaning to (A) center
3. The word "embedded" in line 10 is closest in meaning to (B) encased
4. The word "spotting" in line 17 is closest in meaning to
(B) identifying
5. Where was the Mundrabilla meteorite discovered?
(A) On the Nullarbor Plain
6. According to the passage, stony meteorites are (B) less likely to be discovered than iron meteorites
A pioneering set of experiments has been important in the revolution in our understanding of animal behavior-a revolution that eroded the behaviorist dogma that only humans have minds.
These experiments were designed to detect consciousness-that is signs of self-awareness or self- recognition-in animals other than humans. The scientific investigation of an experience as private as consciousness is frustratingly beyond the usual tools of the experimental psychologist. This may be one reason that many researchers have shield away from the notion of mind and consciousness in nonhuman animals. In the late 1960's, however, psychologist Gordon Gallup devised a test of the sense of self: the mirror test. If an animal were able to recognize its reflection in a mirror as
"self", then it could be said to possess an awareness of self, or consciousness. It is known that a cat or a dog reacts to its own image in a mirror, but often it treats it as that of another individual whose behavior very soon becomes puzzling and boring.
The experiment called for familiarizing the animal with the mirror and then marking the animal's forehead with a red spot. If the animal saw the reflection as just another individual, it might wonder about the curious red spot and might even touch the mirror. But if the animal realized that the reflection was of itself, it would probably touch the spot on its own body. The first time Gallup tried the experiment with a chimpanzee, the animal acted as if it knew that the reflection was its own; it touched the red spot on its forehead. Gallup' report of the experiment, published in a 1970 articles, was a milestone in our understanding of animal minds, and psychologists wondered how widespread self-recognition would prove to be.
1. The word "dogma" in line 3 is closest in meaning to (D) belief
2. Which of the following statements best describes the behaviorists position with regard to
consciousness in nonhuman animals?
(D) Nonhuman animals do not possess self-consciousness.
3. The author suggests that researchers before 1960 probably avoided studying nonhuman animal consciousness because they
(D) lacked the necessary laboratory equipment
4. The phrase "shied away from" in lien 8 is closest in meaning to (B) avoided
5. The chimpanzee in Gallup's first experiment responded to the mirror test by touching (A) its own forehead
The end of the nineteenth century and the early years of the twentieth century were marked by the development of an international Art Nouveau style, characterized by sinuous lines, floral and vegetable motifs, and soft evanescent coloration. The Art Nouveau style was an eclectic one, bringing together elements of Japanese art, motifs of ancient cultures, and natural forms. The glass objects of this style were elegant in outline, although often deliberately distorted, with pale or iridescent surfaces. A favored device of the style was to imitate the iridescent surface seen on ancient glass that had been buried. Much of the Art Nouveau glass produced during the years of its greatest popularity had been generically termed "art glass". Art glass was intended for decorative purposes and relied for its effect upon carefully chosen color combinations and innovative techniques.
France produced a number of outstanding exponents of the Art Nouveau style: among the most celebrated was Emile Gallé(1846-1901). In the United States, Louis Comfort Tiffany(1848- 1933)was the most noted exponent of this style, producing a great variety of glass forms and surfaces, which were widely copied in their time and are highly prized today. Tiffany was a brilliant designer, successfully combining ancient Egyptian.
The Art Nouveau style was a major force in the decorative arts from 1895 until 1915, although its
influence continued throughout the mid-1920's. It was eventually to be overtaken by a new school
of thought known as Functionalism that had present since the turn of the century. At first restricted
to a small avant-garde group of architects and designers. Functionalism emerged as the dominant
influence upon designers alter the First World War. The basic tenet of the movement - that function
should determine form – was not a new concept. Soon a distinct aesthetic code evolved: form should be simple, surfaces plain, and any ornament should be based on geometric relationships.
This new design concept, coupled with the sharp postwar reactions to the style and conventions of the preceding decades, created an entirely new public taste which caused Art Nouveau types of glass to fall out of favor. The new taste demanded dramatic effects of contrast stark outline, and complex textural surfaces.
1. What does paragraph 1 mainly discuss?
(B) The popularity of the Art Nouveau style 2. The word "one" in line 4 refers to
(C) style
3. Paragraph 1 mentions that Art Nouveau glass was sometimes similar to which aspect of ancient burial glass?
(B) The appearance of the glass
4. What is the main purpose of paragraph 2 ?
(B) To give examples of famous Art Nouveau artists
5. It can be inferred from the passage that one reason. Functionalism became popular was that it (B) appealed to people who liked complex painted designs
During most of their lives, surge glaciers behave like normal glaciers, traveling perhaps
only a couple of inches per day. However, at intervals of 10 to 100 years, these glaciers move
forward up to 100 times faster than usual. The surge often progress along a glacier like a great
wave, proceeding from one section to another. Subglacial streams of meltwater might act as a
lubricant, allowing the glacier to flow rapidly toward the sea. The increasing water pressure under
the glacier might lift it off its bed, overcoming the friction between ice and rock, thus freeing the
glacier, which rapidly slides downhill. Surge glaciers also might be influenced by the climate,
volcanic heat, or earthquakes. However, many of these glaciers exist in the same areas as normal
glaciers, often almost side by side.
Some 800 years ago, Alaska's Hubbard Glacier advanced toward the sea, retreated, and advanced again 500 years later. Since 1895, this seventy-mile-long river of ice has been flowing steadily toward the Gulf of Alaska at a rate of approximately 200 feet per year. In June 1986, however, the glacier surged ahead as much as 47 feet a day. Meanwhile, a western tributary, called Valerie Glacier, advanced up to 112 feet per day. Hubbard's surge closed off Russell Fiord with a formidable ice dam, some 2,500 feet wide and up to 800 feet high, whose caged waters threatened the town of Yakutat to the south.
About 20 similar glaciers around the Gulf of Alaska are heading toward the sea. If enough surge glaciers reach the ocean and raise sea levels, West Antarctic ice shelves could rise off the seafloor and become adrift. A flood of ice would then surge into the Southern Sea. With the continued rise in sea level, more ice would plunge into the ocean, causing sea levels to rise even higher, which in turn would release more ice and set in motion a vicious cycle. The additional sea ice floating toward the tropics would increase. Earth's albedo and lower global temperatures, perhaps enough to initiate a new ice age. This situation appears to have occurred at the end of the last warm interglacial (the time between glaciations), called the Sangamon, when sea ice cooled the ocean dramatically, spawning the beginning of the Ice Age.
1. What is the main topic of the passage?
(B) The causes and consequences of surge glaciers.
2. The word "intervals" in line 2 is closest in meaning to (D) periods
3. The author compares the surging motion of a surge glacier to the movement of a (B) Wave
4. Which of the following does the another mention as possible cause of surging glaciers?
(D) The pressure of meltwater underneath the glacier.
5. Yahutat is the name of
(A) an Alaskan town
According to sociologists, there are several different ways in which a person may become recognized as the leader of a social group in the United States. In the family traditional cultural patterns confer leadership on one or both of the parents. In other cases, such as friendship groups, one or more persons may gradually emerge as leaders, although there is no formal process of selection. In larger groups, leaders are usually chosen formally through election or recruitment . Although leaders are often thought to be people with unusual personal ability, decades of research have failed to produce consistent evidence that there is any category of "natural leaders." It seems that there is no set of personal qualities that all leaders have in common; rather, virtually any person may be recognized as a leader if the person has qualities that meet the needs of that particular group.
Furthermore, although it is commonly supposed that social groups have a single leader, research suggests that there are typically two different leadership roles that are held by different individuals.
Instrumental leadership is leadership that emphasizes the completion of tasks by a social group.
Group members look to instrumental leaders to "get things done." Expressive leadership, on the other hand, is leadership that emphasizes the collective well-beings of a social group's members.
Expressive leaders are less concerned with the overall goals of the group than with providing emotional support to group members and attempting to minimize tension and conflict among them.
Group members expect expressive leaders to maintain stable relationships within the group and provide support to individual members.
Instrumental leaders are likely to have a rather secondary relationship to other group members.
They give others and may discipline group members who inhibit attainment of the group's goals.
Expressive leaders cultivate a more personal or primary relationship to others in the group. They offer sympathy when someone experiences difficulties or is subjected to discipline, are quick to lighten a serious moment with humor, and try to resolve issues that threaten to divide the group.
As the difference in these two roles suggest, expressive leaders generally receive more personal affection from group members; instrumental leaders, if they are successful in promoting group goals, may enjoy a more distant respect.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
(D) The role of leaders in social groups
2. The passage mentions all of the following ways by which people can become leaders EXCEPT
(C) specific leadership training
3. In mentioning "natural leaders" in line 9, the author is making the point that (B) there is no proof that "natural leaders" exist
4. Which of the following statements about leadership can be inferred from paragraph 2?
(A) A person who is an effective leader of a particular group may not be an effective leader in another group
5. The passage indicates that instrumental leaders generally focus on (D) achieving a goal.
Although the deep-sea anglerfish has been a subject of curiousity for a long time, it is still very much a mystery to scientists. This type of fish has escaped close scientific observation because it lives deep at the bottom of the ocean. For this reason, scientists have not had many chances to follow the anglerfish around in its natural environment. Furthermore, because the anglerfish inhabits the deep dark waters of the ocean, it cannot be examined in the same way that scientists study many other fish in the laboratory. However, we do know some things about the anglerfish. What we do know, we’ve gathered mainly from anglerfish that have gotten caught in the nets of fishing boats.
The anglerfish comes in many shapes and sizes. Its length range from about twenty centimeters to over three meters. However, anglerfish have a few things in common. They all have a large head with small eyes and a huge mouth filled with sharp sea-through teeth. The anglerfish attracts its food, usually small sea animals, with a strange green glow given off by a long rodlike outgrowth over its mouth. In the darkness of the deep sea, the anglerfish waves the shining “rod” around until it catches the eye of another sea creature. When the curious creature spots the glowing tip of the antenna, it cannot help but swim closer for a better look. Then, in a split of second, the creature is swallowed up and eaten by the anglerfish. In this way, the anglerfish uses its antenna much like a fishing rod to lure prey to it. That is why it is called anglerfish-because “angler” is just another word for someone who fishes.
Although the anglerfish’s ability to fish using its rod is a unique one, it is not the anglerfish itself
that produces the light which attracts other sea creatures. The green glowing light is produced by
a type of special bacteria called photobacteria. Scientists do not know exactly why photobacteria collect on the tip of the anglerfish’s antenna, but they thrive there. The large amount of salt in the ocean’s water allows them to survive and multiply. Although these green glowing bacteria cannot be reproduce on the tip of the rod until there are so many of them that they glow brightly. By doing this, the bacteria help the anglerfish to survive in deep dark places near the ocean floor, places where very few sea creatures are well adapted to live.
1. What is the passage mainly about?
a. The unusual places where fish live b. The unique features of an odd fish
c. Experiments scientists use to learn about fish d. Modern fishing techniques
2. Why do scientists know so little about the deep-sea anglerfish?
a. It is not a fish that is eaten by humans.
b. It is a shy fish that hides from humans.
c. It lives far below the surface of the ocean.
d. It was believed to be an extinct species of fish.
3. What is probably true about the size of the anglerfish?
a. Its size varies greatly b. Its size helps it catch prey
c. Its size is the same as that of other deep-sea fish d. Its size is not known for certain
4. The word “it” in line 19 refers to..
a. The sea creature
b. The antenna
c. The green glow
d. The deep sea anglerfish
5. The word “gathered” in line 9 is closest in meaning to...
a. Made b. Placed c. Changed d. Learned
In 1915 a German scientist, Alfred Wegener, published a book that contained a bold new hypotheseis concerning Earth’s continents. According to Wegener, all the landmass which he named Pangaea, broke apart, forming the continents ad oceans as we know them today.
Wegener’s book was not translated into English until the end of the 1920s. By then, Wegener’s notion of continental drift-the fragmentation of Pangaea and the slow movement of the resulting continents awat from each other – was already a topic of hot debate in geological circles in many parts of the world. An america geologist, F.B. Taylor, had written could not conceive of the possibility that whole continents might be mobile, functioning like giant rafts.
Wegener has marshalled a good deal of circumstantial evidence: fossil plants and animals from widely separated locales; climatic prevailing; and the remarkable fact that the coastlines of continents, especially those of South America and Africa, can be made to fit so well with each other, suggesting that the continents had once been actually joined together. Plausible as continental drift was to those who believed this evidence, there was one major problem: the process or mechanism that causes continents to move remained unexplained.
As sometimes happens when a new scientific concept emerges, the hypothesis of continental drift
failed to gain credibility among many geologists, in part because the mechanisms proposed by
Wegener himself, as well as others, were implausible. Wegener suggested that Earth’s
gravitational force, which is slightly weaker at the equator than elsewhere, was capable of
gradually pulling the continents apart. Taylor proposed that the Moon was torn from Earth in what
is today the Pacific Basin, and that the continents have been steadily moving into the gap thereby
created. Such notions damaged the credibility of the entire continental drift hypothesis. It was only
in the 1950s , when scientists discovered that ocean floors move and spread, that Wegener’s theory gained general acceptance among geologists.
6. What does the passage mainly discuss?
a. Wegener’s explanaion of how oceans influence continental drift
b. Wegener’s theory of continental drift and how it was received by scientists c. Geological theories that preceded Wegener’s theory of continental drift.
d. Geological concepts developed by Wegener’s tthat gained immediate acceptance.
7. The word “bold” in line 2 is closest meaning to...
a. Convincing b. Daring c. Complex d. Attractive
8. The word “primeval” in line 4 is closest meaning to ...
a. Movable b. Very big c. Very ancient d. Assumed
9. According to second paragraph, how did most geologists view Wegener’s theory by the end of 1920s?
a. They found it extremely difficult to accept
b. They knew little about it because Wegener’s book had not yet been translated.
c. They considered it possible but waited for more evidence
d. They agreed that continents move but rejected proposed explanations of how they move.
10. The word “locales” in line 16 is closest in meaning to...
a. Places b. Distances c. Forests d. Coasts
11. The word “implausible” in line 27 is closest in meaning to...
a. Unfamiliar b. Unproven c. Unnatural d. Unconvincing
STRUCTURE
1. Vasco Nunez de Balboa . . . the Pacific Ocean in 1513.
a. discovered b. was discovered c. discover d. had discover
2. If we . . . salt, the soup would have been tastier.
a. had added b. add c. don’t add d. could add
3. My cousin lives . . . a farm.
a. within b. in c. on d. at
4. For a variety of reasons, many American young adults are returning home or are not leaving home at all, . . . .
a. which makes families react in different ways to this
b. which has made families to react in different ways
c. to which makes families react in different ways
d. which is making families react in different ways
5. When he was going away for the weekend, he . . . his neighbor water the lawn a. has
b. had c. requested d. got
6. Travelers checks are useful when one is traveling because . . . people refuse to accept them.
a. quite a few b. many c. few d. a few
7. Your friends won’t be late, . . . ? a. won’t they
b. will they c. isn’t it d. is it
8. . . . , guns had been made by skilled gunsmiths, one at a time.
a. In 1798, Eli Whitney came up with a new idea b. In 1798, when Eli Whitney came up with a new idea c. Until 1798, when Eli Whitney came up with a new idea d. Since 1798 Eli Whitney had been working on a new idea 9. We usually expect that . . . bring bad news.
a. telegram b. a telegram c. the telegrams d. telegrams
10. Not only did many people volunteer to bring food for the picnic, . . . . a. but also drinks and games
b. many people did not offer to bring drinks and games
c. many people offered to bring drinks and games
d. they brought food
11. You . . . better study a lot next week, if you want to get through that exam.
a. had b. should c. will d. must
12. When she was a young girl, she used to wish she . . . a princess.
a. became b. is c. was d. were
13. Paterson was angry . . . his friend and threw a book at him.
a. on b. about c. at d. with
14. Had I run out of gas, I . . . called the garage.
a. would b. had
c. would have d. should have
15. While my brother has excellent eyesight, he . . . hard of hearing.
a. has b. was c. is d. isn’t
1 . Hanya Holm is a dancer, choreographer and _____
(A) dance that she teaches (B) her teaching of dance (C) to teach dancing (D) dance teacher
2. During an eclipse of the Sun, ______ in the
shadow of the Moon.
(A) the Earth lies
(B) the Earth when lying (C) that the Earth lies (D) the lying Earth
3. Under the influence of Ezra Pound, Hilda Doolittle became associated with the Imagists, and ______ into one of the most original poets of the group.
(A) developed (B) to be developing (C) who developed (D) developing it
4. _____ all rainwater falling from a cloud reaches the ground; some of it is lost through evaporation.
(A) Nowhere (B) Not (C) No (D) None
5. In an area first explored by Samuel de Champlain, ______ .
(A) establishment of the city of Halifax in 1749 (B) in 1749 the city of Halifax established (C) in 1749, establishing the city of Halifax (D) the city of Halifax was established in 1749 6. A nation's merchant marine is made up of its commercial ships and the people ______ them.
(A) they operate (B) who operate (C) they operate of (D) do they operate
7. ______ Nat Turner who led a revolt against slavery in Virginia in 1831.
(A) Where was
(B) It was
(C) He was
(D) That he was
8. The most elaborate of all bird nests ______ , domed communal structure built by social weaverbirds.
(A) larger (B) largely is (C) the large (D) is the large
9. William Walker's mural, "Wall of Respect,"
______ an outdoor wall in Chicago, deals with social issues.
(A) covers (B) covers it (C) which covers (D) which it covers
10. Studies of the gravity field of the Earth indicate ______ yield when unusual weight is placed on them.
(A) although its crust and mantle (B) its crust and mantle to (C) that its crust and mantle (D) for its crust and mantle to
11. The columbine flower, ______ to nearly all of the United States, can be raised from seed in almost any garden.
(A) native
(B) how native is (C) how native is it (D) is native
12. The photoperiodic response of algae actually depends on the duration of darkness, ______ . (A) the light is not on
(B) and not on light (C) but is not on the light (D) is not on light
13. ______, the first Black denomination in the
United States.
(A) Richard Alien founded the African Methodist Episcopal Church
(B) Richard Alien, who founded the African Methodist Episcopal Church
(C) The African Methodist Episcopal Church founded by Richard Alien
(D) The foundation of the African Methodist Episcopal Church by Richard Alien
14. The annual worth of Utah's manufacturing is greater than ______ .
(A) that of its mining and farming combined (B) mining and farming combination (C) that mining and farming combined (D) of its combination mining and farming
1. Four flags have flown over the Palace of the Governors in Santa Fe, New Mexico: --- Spain, Mexico, the Confederacy, and the United States.
(A) which of (B) of mose being (C) those of (D) Those that of
2. Most of _____ archaeologists know about prehistoric cultures is based on studies of material remains.
(A) these (B) what (C) which (D) their
3. In her time, Isadora Duncan was _____ today a liberated woman.
(A) calling what we would (B) who would be calling (C) what we would call (D) she would call it
4. _____ around stones that are sun warmed, even the smallest of stones creates tiny currents of warm air.
(A) The cool air (B) If the air is cool (C) That the air cools (D) The cooler the air
5. According to some critics, the novels of William Burroughs demonstrate the major hazard of
absurd literature, _____ tendency toward overembellishment and incoherence.
(A) notwithstanding (B) besides
(C) is a (D) its
6. Despite its wide range of styles and instrumentation, country music has certain common features _____ its own special character.
(A) give it that (B) that give it (C) give that (D) that gives it to
7. Coinciding with the development of jazz in New Orleans in the 1920's _____ in blues music.
(A) was one of the greatest periods (B) one of the greatest periods (C) was of the greatest periods (D) the greatest periods
8. most tree frogs change color to harmonize…………
a. to their background
b. with their background c. on their background d. in background of them
9. Mules have the shape and the size like of horse .... the ears and the blabla like of donkeys
A. For is B. Because
C. Neverthelees D. And
10. The tongue can move and play a vital role in chewing, …..…, and ...
Jawaban : swallowing and speaking
11. Instead of being housed in one central bank, the Federal Reserve System is ... twelve districts.
Jawaban : to divided into
12. Those species are cultivated for their……...
Jawaban : beautiful follage
13. Kiwi birds mainly eat insects, worms, and snails and……. For their food by probing the ground with their long bills.
Jawaban : search
14. One of the most difficult questions in difining sleep is ...
Jawaban : what are the functions of sleep
15. like snakes, lizards can be found ... continents except Antarctica.
Jawaban : on all other
16. Prior to an extermination program earlier this century, ... roamed across nearly all of North America
Jawaban : live wolves
17. Artist Gutzon Borglum designed the Mount Rushmore Memorial and worked ... death in 1941.
Jawaban : the project from 1925 until his
18. It is proving ... for drug makers to market directly to patients.
Jawaban : less costly and more profitable
19. Sapphires weighing as much as two pound have ...
Jawaban : on occasion been mined
1. Neither Professor Johnson nor any other faculty member __________ to apply for the dean’s position.
A. intend B. intends C. are intending D. has intend
2. E. Coli has proven to be __________ most dangerous bacteria that can be acquired from food and water, even in developed countries.
A. one of the B. one of C. one D. of one
3. The death toll would __________ much higher if immediate action had not been taken.
A. probably being
B. probably be
C. probably been
D. be probable
4. A fire in the __________ building could be a problem for firefighters.
A. ninety-story-tall B. ninety-tall-story C. ninety-stories-tall D. ninety stories
5. Their office consisted of three rooms, __________ was used as a conference room.
A. larger of which B. the largest of which C. the largest of them D. largest
6. In the past six months, the company has already received twice __________ in gross revenues as it earned in the entire preceding year.
A. as much B. more C. as many D. as more
7. __________ better, the team would have been able to defeat the opponent.
A. If it prepares B. If prepares C. Preparing D. Had it prepared
8. Nobody knows why __________ postponed until next week.
A. the meeting B. was the meeting C. did the meeting D. the meeting was
9. The curriculum at the public school is as good __________ of any private school.
A. or better than B. as or better that C. as or better than that D. as or better than those
10. Being a private university, __________ a well-
organized charitable giving program in order to
offer a sufficient number of quality courses and activities.
A. development of B. it developed C. develop D. developing
11. The greater the number of bacteria attacking the system, __________.
A. the sooner treatment must be begun B. sooner must begin treatment
C. begin treatment as soon as possible D. must begin treatment sooner
12. A congressional committee has been appointed to study a new procedure __________ to eliminate some costly expenditures.
A. that is expected B. what is expected C. which expects D. that expected
13. Some people send job applications even when they are reasonably happy in their jobs, __________ improving their position.
A. with hoping to B. hoping that C. with hopes of D. hoping to
14. Swimming is a beneficial exercise, __________
aerobic activity and uses a number of muscle groups.
A. not only because it provides B. because it both provides C. for provision
D. as result of providing
15. The professor instructed the students __________ the essay without preparing an outline first.
A. to not write
B. not to write
C. do not write
D. to no write
16. It is not clear when __________, although there are many different theories.
A. dinosaurs becoming extinct B. dinosaurs extinction
C. dinosaurs became extinct D. did dinosaurs become extinct
17. If the driver’s own car __________ damaged, the favorite probably would have won the race.
A. had not been B. not
C. no had been D. has no be
18. The soldiers were unable to determine where __________.
A. the jeep had been left B. had been leave the jeep C. had the jeep been left D. had the jeep left
19. The manager was angry because somebody _________.
A. had allowed the photographers to enter the building
B. had let the photographers to enter the building C. permitting the photographers enter the building D. the photographers let into the building
20. The committee members resented __________
of the meeting.
A. the president that he did not tell them B. the president not to inform them C. the president’s not informing them
D. that the president had failed informing themselves 21. __________ did Arthur realize that there was danger.
A. Upon entering the store B. When he entered the store C. After he had entered the store D. Only after entering the store
22. The company sustained an angry reaction from its employees after announcing how__________
to reduce operating costs.
A. it planned B. planned C. did it plan D. was planned 23. The gymnasium facilities of this public school are __________ those of the finest private school in the county.
A. second after B. second only to C. first except for D. second place from
24. The more the horse tried to free itself from the restraint, __________.
A. the tighter it became B. it became tighter
C. the horse could not escape D. it was unable to move
25. __________, that runner is likely to be the first one chosen.
A. Due to her agility and speed B. Because of she is agile and fast C. Because agile and rapid
D. Because her agility and speed
26. It was not until the students were seated __________ the proctor realized he had the wrong test booklets.
A. that B. when
C. as soon as D. and
27. As a result of the additional rain with so much flooding already having occurred, residents were seeking shelter __________ than in previous years.
A. in more numbers B. more numerously C. greater in numbers D. in greater numbers
28. The company president wrote an e-mail and planned to send __________ as soon as the vote was complete.
A. to all directors the message
B. the message by all directors
C. message to all directors
D. the message to all directors
29. As the result of Diane’s illness and the effects of the medication, __________ to curtail her work and public speaking activities.
A. has B. had
C. she has had D. she will had
30. Hardly __________ the office when he realized that he had forgotten his wallet.
A. he had entered B. had entered C. entered
D. had he entered
31. Once the employees had begun receiving financial information on the company, __________ income.
A. they diligently assisted in reducing costs and increasing
B. it made the employees more eager to assist in reduce costs and increase
C. diligently they assist to reduce costs and increase D. with extreme diligence helped lower costs and increase
32. The plumber attempted to loosen the nut with regular pliers but then decided he needed to retrieve his toolbox in order to use __________.
A. another pliers B. others pliers C. the others ones D. another pair
33. The committee has met and __________.
A. have approve the budget
B. budget was approved
C. its approval of the budget
D. approved the budget
LISTENING PART A
LISTENING PART B C
STRUCTURE 2
READING
8) The phrase “strive for” in line 19 closest in meaning to (A) try to achieve
(B) enjoy (C) imitate (D) believe in
9) According to the third paragraph, which of the following is the primary concern of most inuit artists?
(A) depicting seasonal changes in animals (B) demonstrating accurate naturalistic detail
(C) exaggerating physical characteristics for dramatic effect (D) revealing the essence of their subjects spirit
10) according to the fifth paragraph, which of the following types of activities would be LEAST likely to be represented in inuit art?
(A) Woman sewing clothes (B) modern activities (C) community games (D) drum dancing
Passage 3
There are two main hypotheses when it comes to explaining the emergence of modern humans. The ‘Out of Africa’ theory holds that homo sapiens burst onto the scene as a new species around 150,000 to 200,000 years ago in Africa and subsequently replaced archaic humans such as the Neandertals. The other model, known as multi-regional evolution or regional continuity, posits far more ancient and diverse roots for our kind. Proponents of this view believe that homo sapiens arose in Africa some 2 million years ago and evolved as a single species spread across the Old World, with populations in different regions linked through genetic and cultural exchange.
Of these two models, Out of Africa, which was originally developed based on fossil evidence, and supported by much genetic research, has been favored by the majority of evolution scholars. The vast majority of these genetic studies have focused on DNA from living populations, and although some small progress has been made in recovering DNA from Neanderthal that appears to support multi-regionalism, the chance of recovering nuclear DNA from early human fossils is quite slim at present. Fossils thus remain very much a part of the human origins debate.
Another means of gathering theoretical evidence is through bones. Examinations of early modern human skulls from Central Europe and Australia dated to between 20,000 and 30,000 years old have suggested that both groups apparently exhibit traits seen in their Middle Eastern and African predecessors. But the early modern specimens from Central Europe also display Neandertal traits, and the early modern Australians showed affinities to archaic Homo from Indonesia. Meanwhile, the debate among
paleoanthropologists continues, as supporters of the two hypotheses challenge the evidence and conclusions of each other.
1. The passage primarily discusses which of the following (a)Evidence that supports the “Out of Africa” theory
(b)Two hypotheses and some evidence on the human origins debate (c) The difficulties in obtaining agreement among theorists on the
human origins debate
(d)That fossils remain very much a part of the human origins debate
2. The word “emergence” in line 1 is closest in meaning to (a)complexity
(b)development (c) appearance (d)decline
3. The word “proponents” in line 6 is closest in meaning to (a)experts
(b)advocates (c) inspectors (d)historians
4. All of the following are true except
(a)three methods of gathering evidence are mentioned in the passage (b)The multi-regional model goes back further in history.
(c) the Out of Africa model has had more support from scholars
(d)DNA studies offer one of the best ways in future to provide clear evidence.
5. The word “slim” in line 14 is closest in meaning to (a)small
(b)narrow (c) thin (d)difficult
6. Which of the following is not true
(a)the vast majority of genetic studies have focused on living populations
(b)early modern human skulls all support the same conclusions (c) both hypotheses focus on Africa as a location for the new species.
(d)early modern Australian skulls have similarities to those from Indonesia.
7. In line 18, the word “their ” refers to which of the following (a)Middle Easterners and Africans
(b)skulls
(c) central Europeans and Australians (d)traits
8. Which of the following is NOT true about the two hypotheses
(a)Both hypotheses regard Neandertals to be the predecessors of modern humans
(b)Genetic studies have supported both hypotheses (c) Both hypotheses cite Africa as an originating location.
(d)One hypothesis dates the emergence of homo sapiens much earlier than the other.
9. It can be inferred from the passage that
(a)there is likely to be an end to the debate in the near future (b)the debate will interest historians to take part in
(c) the debate is likely to be less important in future (d)there is little likelihood that the debate will die down
10. According to the passage, the multi-regional evolution model posits far more diverse roots for our kind because
(a)Evidence from examinations of early modern human skulls has come from a number of different parts of the world.
(b)DNA from Neandertal appears to support multi-regionalism
(c) Populations in different regions were linked through genetic and cultural exchange.
(d)This has been supported by fossil evidence
PASSAGE 4
Although management principles have been implemented since ancient times, most management scholars trace the beginning of modern management thought back to the early 1900s, beginning with the pioneering work of Frederick Taylor (1856-1915) Taylor was the first person to study work scientifically. He is most famous for introducing techniques of time and motion study, differential piece rate systems, and for systematically specializing the work of operating employees and managers. Along with other pioneers such as Frank and Lillian Gilbreth, Taylor set the stage, labeling his philosophy and methods ―scientific management‘. At that time, his philosophy, which was concerned with productivity, but which was often misinterpreted as promoting worker interests at the expense of management, was in marked contrast to the prevailing industrial norms of worker exploitation.
The time and motion study concepts were popularized by Frank and Lillian Gilbreth. The Gilbreths had 12 children. By analyzing his children‘s dishwashing and bedmaking chores, this pioneer efficiency
expert, Frank Gilbreth, hit on principles whereby workers could eliminate waste motion. He was memorialized by two of his children in their 1949 book called ―Cheaper by the Dozen‖.
The Gilbreth methods included using stop watches to time worker movements and special tools (cameras and special clocks) to monitor and study worker performance, and also involved identification of
―therbligs‖ (Gilbreth spelled backwards) – basic motions used in production jobs. Many of these motions and accompanying times have been used to determine how long it should take a skilled worker to perform a given job. In this way an industrial engineer can get a handle on the approximate time it should take to produce a product or provide a service. However, use of work analysis in this way is unlikely to lead to useful results unless all five work dimensions are considered:
physical, psychological, social, cultural, and power.
40. What is the passage primarily about?
(A) The limitations of pioneering studies in understanding human behavior
(B) How time and motion studies were first developed
(C) The first applications of a scientific approach to understanding human behavior
(D) The beginnings of modern management theory
41. The word “which” in line 9 refers to
(A) scientific management (B) philosophy
(C) productivity (D) time and motion study
42. It can be inferred from the first paragraph that
(A) workers welcomed the application of scientific management (B) Talor’s philosophy is different from the industrial norms
(C) by the early 1900s science had reached a stage where it could be applied to the workplace
(D) workers were no longer exploited after the introduction of scientific management.
43. The word “prevailing” in line 10 is closest in meaning to
(A) predominant (B) broadly accepted (C) prevalent (D) common
44. According to the passage, Frank Gilbreth discovered how workers could eliminate waste motion by
(A) using special tools such as cameras and clocks (B) using stop watches
(C) applying scientific management principles (D) watching his children do their chores
45. The basic motions used in production jobs were given which one of following names by Frank Gilbreth?
(A) dimensions (B) gilreths (C) therbligs (D) monitors
46. According to the passage, the time it takes a skilled worker to perform the motion of a given job can be measured by using:
(A) stop watches (B) all five work dimensions (C) special tools (D) therbligs
47. The word “motions” in line 20 is closest in meaning to (A) stop watches (B) habits (C) actions (D) special tools
48. Where in the passage does the author comment that the principles of scientific management were often misunderstood?
(A) Lines 1-5 (B) Lines 6-10 (C) Lines 11-15 (D) Lines 16-20 49. The word “dimensions” in line 24 is closest in meaning to (A) sizes (B) extents (C) aspects (D) standards
50. All of the following are true except
(A) scientific management was concerned with productivity.
(B) the beginnings of modern management thought commenced in the 19th century.
(C) Frank Gilbreth‘s fame was enhanced by two of his children writing a book.
(D) analyzing work to increase productivity is not likely to be useful unless all of the dimensions are considered
PASSAGE 5
The first English attempts to colonize North America were controlled by individuals rather than companies. Sir Humphrey Gilbert was the first Englishman to send colonists to the New World.
His initial expedition, which sailed in 1578 with a patent granted by Queen Elizabeth was defeated by the Spanish. A second attempt ended in disaster in 1583, when Gilbert and his
ship were lost in a storm. In the following year, Gilbert's half brother, Sir Water Raleigh, having obtained a renewal of the patent, sponsored an expedition that explored the coast of the region that he named "Virginia." Under Raleigh's direction efforts were then made to establish a colony on Roanoke island in 1585 an6 1587.
The survivors of the first settlement on Roanoke returned to
England in 1586, but the second group of colonists disappeared without leaving a trace. The failure of the Gilbert and Raleigh ventures made it clear that the tasks they had undertaken were too big for any one colonizer. Within a short time the trading company had supplanted the individual promoter of colonization.
12. Which of the following would be the most appropriate title for the passage?
(A) The Regulation of Trading Companies (B) British - Spanish Rivalry in the New World (C) Early Attempts at Colonizing North America (D) Royal Patents Issued in the 16th Century
13. The passage states which of the following about the first English people to be involved in establishing colonies in North America?
(A) They were requested to do so by Queen Elizabeth.
(B) They were members of large trading companies.
(C) They were immediately successful.
(D) They were acting on their own.
14. According to the passage , which of the following statements about Sir Humphrey Gilbert is true?
(A) He never settled in North America.
(B) His trading company was given a patent by the queen.
(C) He fought the Spanish twice.
(D) He died in 1587.
SOAL SULIET LISTTENING
A. The woman and the man have plans to eat out together.
B. The woman would prefer to stay home this evening.
C. The man has changed his mind about the new restaurant.
D. The man is sorry he cannot join the woman for dinner.
2. A. A plane trip.
B. A rental car.
C. A hotel room.
D. Concert tickets.
3. A. The woman did not remember her appointment.
B. The woman needs to get a calendar.
C. The appointment must be changed to a different day.
D. The calendar shows the wrong month.
4. A. The woman should continue driving.
B. They will arrive late for dinner.
C. He forgot to make reservations.
D. He is not sure what is wrong with the car.
5. A. She did not realize that their team had won.
B. Their team nearly lost the game.
C. She called to find out the score of the game.
D. Their team usually wins its games.
6. A. Join him and Mary at the movie.
B. Ask Mary what she is doing tonight.
C. Invite a group of friends to go to the movie.
D. Tell Mary about the movie.
7. A. Professor Campbell changed the conference time.
B. He is planning to stay until the conference is finished.
C. He will not attend the concert.
D. He will wait for the woman.
8. A. She recently purchased laundry detergent.
B. She will buy some detergent for the man.
C. The Laundromat is around the corner.
D. The man can buy detergent at the store.
9. A. It is next to the Holiday Motel.
B. It is nicer than the Holiday Motel.
C. It is very inexpensive.
D. It is a little farther than the Holiday Motel.
10. A. She does not believe it will snow.
B. Snow in October is unusual.
C. Canadian winters are rather long.
D. Winter is her favorite season.
11. A. He lost his wallet on a trip to Germany.
B. His private lessons did not help him.
C. His German tutor charges a reasonable fee.
D. He plans to continue taking lessons.
12. A. The committee has just begun to write the report.
B. The report will be short.
C. The committee members have just become acquainted.
D. The report is finished except for the introduction.
13. A. They should play another time.
B. They will probably have to play in the gym.
C. He prefers to play in the gym D. It is not supposed to rain tomorrow 14. A. Type the letter as it is.
B. Change some wording in his letter.
C. Send the letter without typing it.
D. Check to make sure his facts ar
