"J'-

B- tl-

Hall

Ticket No

buoiol "J'- B

M.

^Sc. Entrance

Examination, Februry 2013,

Booklet Code: B Time: 2

hrs - , .

^(M.

$c Biochemistrv) MaxMarks:

100 Please read the following instructions carefully before answering:

1.

^Enter Hall Ticket number in the ^space provided above and also on OMR sheet.

2.

^Paper contains three sections: Part

A,

Part

B

and Fart C together

with

85 questions

for

100 marls.

Part A

contains 25 questions, each question carries one

mark. Part

B contains 45 questions, each question carries one mark. Part C contains 15 questions, each question carries two marks

3.

Part A

will

be used

for

tie breaking.

4. In Part A

there

is

negative

marking. 033 marks will

be deducted

for

each wrong answer.

In

Part B there is no negative marking.

In

Part C there is negative

marking.

0.66 marks

will

be deducted

for

each wrong answer.

5.

Answers have to be marked on the OMR ^{sheet as} per the.instructions provided.

6.

Apart from OMR sheet, the question paper contains 18 @ighteen) ^pages including the instructions,

7.

^Please

refurn

the OMR answer sheet at the end of the examination.

8.

No additional ^sheet

will

b6 provided,

9.

^{Rough work} can be calried out

in

the question paper itself

in

the space provided at the end ofthe booklet.

10. Non programmable calculators ^are allowed.

1 1. Candidate should write and darken the correct Booklet Code of the question paper

in

the OMR Answer Sheet, without which such OMR answer sheets cannot be evaluated. The defaulting candidates

in

marking the Booklet Code in the OMR sheet shall not have any claim on their examination and the University shall not be held responsible for the lapse on the part ofthe candidate/s.

PART

A

fEach question ^has only one right answer.Mark the right answer. Each question carries one mark, There is negative rnarking.0.33

markswillbe

deductedfor eachvrong answer.l

-

1. Most enzyme catalyzed reactions occur

in

" A)

nanoseconds

B)

microseconds

C)

milliseconds

D)

secoirds

2. X-rays consist

of

A) Negatively Chuged particles

B) Electromagnetic waves of long wavelength C) Positively Charged Particles

D) Electromagnetic waves of short wavelength

r3oorbd cole: g B-19-

3. In an adiabatic change of a gaseous system the

following

parameters remain unchanged A) pressure

B) pressure and temperature C) voiume

D) heat

4.

A

Carnot cycle has

A) two isothermals and two adiabatics B) two adiabatics and two isochorics C) two adiabatics and two isobarics

D) two adiabatics, one isobaric ^and one isochoric

5.

A

system is said to be in thermodynamic equilibrium when

it

is in A) thermal equilibrium alone

B) therrnal and mechanical equilibrium simultaneously C) thermal ^and chemical equilibrium alone

D) thermal, mechanical and chemical equilibrium simultaneously

6. The value of g (acceleration due to gravity) is maximum

at

^'

A)

the surface of the earth B) at the centre of the earth C) at 36000

ft

above earth

D) at 36000

ft

below the surface of the earth

7. In two different cells containing CuSOa and AgNO3 solutions, equal amount of current is passed to produce 0.106 gm of Cu and 0.3577 gm of Ag respectively. What is the chemical equivalent of Ag, given that the chemical equivalent of Cu is 31.8?

A)216 B)

108

c)

s4 D) s8.9

8. What is the normality of Na2COr solution made by

diluting

15 cc of 9

N

NazCOr with 75 cc

of

water?

A)

1.s

N B)

^1.8 N

c)2N

D)3N

rkoklaf ca&: B B- le-

9. The type of gametes produced by an individual

with

genotype Aa Bb are

A) AB; ab B) ab;AB

C) aB;Ab

D)

all of the above

10. Dominance in which the phenotype of the heterozygous genotype shows the phenotypic characteristics of both homozygous genotypes is called

A)

Codominance

B)

Psuedo-dominancc

C)

Incomplete dominance

D)

None of the above

11. Vinblastine is a poison that prevents the polymerization of microtubules. Which of the following processes are

likely

to be affected in the presence of Vinblastine?

A)

Protein synthesis on polysomes

B)

Protein synthesis on free ribosomes

C)

Ribcisome assembly

D)

Cell division

12. You would like to

purify

the receptor for growth hormone which is a polypetide. Which cellular fraction is the best choice to isolate the receptor?

A)

Membrane fraction

B)

Cytosolic fraction

C)

Nuclear extract

D)

None of the above

13.

A

major function of the

liver

is to detoxify drugs. Which of the

following

organelles is critical for this function?

A)

Endoplasmic reticulum

B)

Lysosomes

C)

Nucleus

D)

Mitochondria

14. In Southern blotting, nucleic acid on the nitrocellulose membrane is denatured by treatment with NaOH, however,

in

Northern blotting, this is not done so because the nucleic acid gets hydrolyzed. Which chemical nature of the nucleic acid in Northern blot is responsible for this?

A) The presence of a 3'-5'phosphodiester linkage B) The ^presence of uracil

C) The ^presence of a

2'-hydroxyl

group D) The presence of a

3'-hydroxyl

group

t%ovtpj- cok: e B-12

15. A pdrson

with

lactose intolerance is most

likely

deficient in breaking which type of chemical bond?

A)

An ester linkage B)

A

phosphodiester bond C) An amide bond

D)

A

glycosidic bond

16. Cascade amplification ^{mcans an incrsase} in the activity of

just

one molecule at the top of the cascade can result in a large response further down the ^cascade. In glycogen metabolism ^cascade, assuming that the tumovei

no-b", of

all enzymes involved

in

glycogen metabolic regulation ^and activity

-is

50

reactions

per

second,

how many

glucose molecules

could be

removed from glycogen

in

^{1 s} upon activation of one molecule of protein kinase

A

^(PKA)?

(A) s0 (B) _2s00

(c)

12s00

(D)

125000

17. How

will

you calculate the overall Gibbs free energy change for the reaction

A

+ B +* C + D at25oC?

A)

AG = AGo'+ RT

B) AG = AGo'+ RT

ln (tcl[D]/tAltBl)

C) AG = AGo'+ ^RT

ln (tAltBl/icltDl)

D) AG = AGo'+ ^RT

ln (tcltDl)

1g. The excess carbons of citrate can be used to produce glycogen in the liver. Which one of the following

liver

enzymes is required

for

this conversion to occur?

A)

Glucose-6-PhosPhatase B) Pymvate carboxYlase C) Pyruvate kinase

D) a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase

19. Which of the

following

graphs represents a Lineweaver Burk plot

of

a non-competitive inhibition?

A)

Graph

A

B) Graph B C) Graph C

D)

Graph

D

4

B -ll*

20. Which of the

following

is

NOT

^a product of photoreduction in photosynthesis?

A)

Oxygen B) ATP C) NADPH

D)

Sugar

21. Which reaction (s) is the oxidative reaction in glycolysis?

A)

Phosphate is added to the glucose at the C-6 position by hexokinase

B) Glucose-6-phosphate is changed into fructose-6-phosphate by phosphoglucoisomerase C) Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate is converted

to

1, 3 bisphosphoglycerate by triose phosphate dehydrogenase

D)

1,3-bisphoshoglycerate is converted to 3-phosphoglycerate by phosphoglycerokinase

22. Each cycle

of

B-oxidation, liberates a

two

carbon

unit

(acetyl-CoA) which enters the Kreb's cycle

for

complete degradation

to yield

ATPs.

What is the

net

gain of ATP in palmitic

acid (CH3(CH2) r+COzH) oxidation?

A)

131

B)

³⁵

c)

⁹⁶

D) t29

t?ooK\e;t &-: s B-IL

23. When ^a muscle cell is working very hard, it produces ^a

lot

of ADP from

ATP'

Under ^these conditions, myokinase can

combine-

^and

-

to form ATP' A) ADP, Pi

B) ADP,

AMP

C) ADP, ADP D)

AMP,2Pi

Zl.Forthe

^{reaction SOz + VzO2= SOs,}

if

we write Kp= IQ (RT)*' then x becomes:

A)

^-1

B) -u2

c) v2

D)1

25. Which of the

following

statement(s) ^are true about formic acid?

A) It

is ^a weaker acid than acetic acid.

B) It

is a reducing agent.

C)

When its calcium salt is heated,

it

^{forms a ketone'}

D) It

is an oxidizing agent.

PART B

[These questions may have one or more

right

answers'

Mark all

the

right

answers'

For iistance, if

there are

tiree right

answers to ^a

particular

^{question, you have}

to mark atl the three righi iptions. Marking

^one,

two

^or

four will

^be consi'dered as wrong

answer. There is no neggtive rnarking

for

^{incorrect answers}

in

^this

part'l

26. Equal volumes of molar hydrochloric acid and sulphuric acid are neutralizedby dilute

NaoH

solution ^and x kcal and y kcaf of heat are liberated respectively.

which

^{of the}

following

^{is true?}

A) x=y

B) x=yl2 C) x=2y

D)

None of the above

27. Which of the

following

oxidant is used ^{as an} antiseptic?

A) Kr B)

KMnOz

C)

CrO:

D) KNOI

6

B-Kkt coQo: o B -12-

28.

An

unknown element forms an oxide. What

will

be the equivalent weight of the element

if

the oxygen content is ^20Vo of the above compound by weight?

A)

¹⁶

B)

³²

c)8

D)

64

2g.Benzoylation of phenol in alkaline medium is known as:

A)

Friedel Craft reaction

B)

Wurtz-Fitting reaction

C)

Schotten- Baumann reaction

D)

Sabatier- Sandern reaction

30.

A

compound

X

on heating gives ^a colourless ^gas. This residue is dissolved in water to obtain

Y.

When excess CO2 is bubbled through aqueous solution of

Y,Z

is formed. Z on gentle heating gives back X. The compound

X

is

A)

^CaCOr

B)

Ca(HCO:)z

C)

NazCO:

D)

NaItrCO:

31. The radius of first

orbit

of hydrogen atom is

A)

0.025 nm

B) 0.05 nm

c)

o.2s

A

D) 5x10 ^-e cm

32. Which of the

following

is a covalently bonded crystal?

A) Aluminium

B) Sodium Chloride C) Germanium D) Manganese oxide

33.

An

dlectric heater can be made from wires

of A)

Copper

B)

Aluminium

C) Tungsten D) Nicrome

(:"oKkf c&: B B -l'2*

34. The first law of thermodynamics deals

with A)

conservation of energy principle

B) defining the concept of temperature C) expansion of ^gas

D) relation between heat ^and

work

35.

A

perfectly white body is defined ^{as a} body from where

A)

no energy is tansmitted

B) no energy is absorbed C) all energy is reflected D) reflection is diffused

36.

A

green glass looks green ^because

it

absorbs red light strongly and reflects the green. When such a greetigturr is heated

in

a furnace ^and then taken out

it

is found to glow

with

a light

of

which color?

A)

^green B) red C) white D) black

37. For water Cp (specific heat ^at constant pressure) ^and Cv (specific heat at constant volume) are equal

A)

when T=0oK B) when T=OOC C) when T=1000C D) when T=4oC

3g.

A

Carnot engine whose low temperature reservoir is at 27oC ^and has an efficiency of ^507o, what is the temperature of the source

in

degree centigrade?

A)

6oo"c

B)327'C c) 400"c

D)

snoc

39. The ratio of specific heats (gamma) =

cp/cv

for a triatomic ^gas is

A)

^1.0

B)

^1.33

c)

^1.40

D)

r.66

tsdp1af c&: B

B-lL

40.

An

atom

in

a solid is supposed to execute a simple harmonic motion about its mean position when

A) it

makes a to and

fro

motion

in

^a suaight

line

B).the force is proportional to

X

^(where

X

is the displacement about the mean position) C) the force is proportional to

X'

^(where

X

is the displacement about the mean position) D) the force is pr<iportional

to

lD((where

X

is the displacement about the mean position)

41. The unit of energy

of

a system can be represented

by A\

erq

'-/ --o

B) dyne C)

joule

D) newtbn

42.Itis difficult

to cook

in

a

hill

station because

A)

the temperature is

low

B)

boiling

point of water is

low

C) pressure is high D) pressure is less

43. For isotopes, which

of

the

following

quantities have integer values

A)

atomic number B) mass number C) atomic weight

D)

number of electrons

;

44. Which of the

following

statements about recA, a protein involved in homologous recombination in E.

coli,

^are correct?

A) It

hydrolyzes

ATP

to promote branch migration.

B) It

binds to single-stranded

DNA

to form a filament.

C) It

is an ATP-dependent nuclease that generates single-stranded

DNA.

D) It

facilitates the search

of

duplex

DNA

for regions

with

sequence similarities to the invading single-stranded

DNA.

45. Which of the

following

statements about transcriptional enhancers are correct?

A)

They may function as promoters.

B)

^{They may function} when on either side of the activated promoter-

C)

They may function even when located many base-pairs away from the promoter.

D)

They may function

only in

specific types of cells and tissues.

9

tuoq\ttcq4€:B

13 -12-

46. Eukaryotic

mRNA

splicing involves which of the

following?

A)

The formation of

T+ 5'

phosphodiester bonds.

B)

A

sequence-specific endoribonuclease to hydrolyze the phosphodiester bond at the junctions of the introns

with

the exons.

C) The coupling of phosphodiester bond formation to ATP hydrolysis.

D)

The formation of lariat intermediate.

47. Which of the

following

statements about the aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase reaction are correct?;

A) A

mixed-anhydride bond is formed.

B) An

acyl-ester bond is formed.

C)

An

acyl-thioesterbond is formed.

D) A

phosphoamide (P-N) bond is formed.

48.

DNA

synthesis begins

A)

at a single location in E.

coli

^genome.

B)

at ^a single location

in

SV40 genome.

C) at a single location

in yeast

genome.

D)

at a site(s) that is G-C rich in E.

coli

genome.

49.I:2:1istheexpectedratioof-inanF2progenyofasing1egene(mono

hybrid cross)

A)

Phenotypes when one of the alleles is dominant

B)

Genotypes when one of the alleles is dominant

C)

Combinations of heterozygous genotypes

D)

Combinations of homozygous genotypes

50. The nucleus of which of the

following

cells contains 2n number

of

chromosomes?

A) Liver

cell

B)

Endosperm

C)

Zygote

D)

Gametophyte

51. Which of the

following

organelles are bound by double-membranes?

A)

Nucleus

B)

Mitochondria

C)

Chloroplast

D)

Peroxisomes

10

BooKla{ bga: g

B-IL

52. Which of the

following

statements are true?

A)

Nuclear pore complexes facilitate transport of proteins ^and

RNA

across the nuclear membrane.

B)

Transport of proteins across the mitochondria is an active process.

C)

Peroxisomes import completely folded proteins.

D)

Endqplasmic reticulum is contiguous with the outer nuclear membrane.

53. The key difference between active transport ^across membranes versus secondary active rransport is

A)

Requirement for specific proteins

B)

Transport of solute across a concentration gradient

C) Being

driven

by

an electrochemical gradient

D)

Coupling ^an energetically unfavourable reaction to an energetically favourable one

54. Given that the isoelectric points (pI) of amino acids Aspartate is 2.85, Histidine is 7.6, Arginine

is

10.76 and Glutamine 5.65. In a buffer of pH 7, which of the amino acid (s) would migrate towards ^anode?

A)

Histidine

B)

Asp4rtate

C)

Arginine

D)

Glutamine

55.

The mutation

in

sickle cell disease is a valine

for

glutamate substitution at position 6 of the p-chain of haemoglobin, removing ^a negative charge from the haemoglobin molecule ^because

of which the migration of the protein band in a polyacryiamide gel is altered. p-chain of

haemoglobin

fiom

a normal, a carrier and a sickle cell patient were run on a polyacrylamide gel, the representation of which is given below. Identify the samples run

in

lane ^1,

2

and 3.

A)

Lane 1: Carrier;

Lane2:

Patient

with

sickle

cell;Lane

3: Normal

B)

Lane

1:

Normal;

Lane}:

^Patient

with

^{sickle cell; Lane 3: Carrier}

C)

Lane ^1: Canier; Lane2: Normal; Lafile3: Patient

with

sickle cell

D)

Lane ^1: Normal;

Lanez;

Carrier; Lane 3: Patient

with

sickle cell

\7

0

11

l%ot<taL c&p; g

B-IL

56. Which of the

following

statement (s) about ATP is

INCORRECT?

A)

ATP is a building block of RNA.

B) The hydrolysis of ATP to ADP and Pi is an endergonic reaction.

C) The phosphate bond energy of ATP may be transformed into light.

D) The phosphate bond energy of ATP is used to power catabolic metabolism.

57. The methods by which ATP is formed inside a cell are:

A) Substrate level phosphorylation B) Protein phosphorylation

C) Oxidative phosphorylation

D) Lohmann reaction (Break down of creatine-P coupled

with

ADP)

58. With respect to

inhibition

of electron transport chain which of the

foliowing

are true?

A)

Cyanide binds to the iron

in

the Heme groups in cytochrome Oxidase

B) Rotenone, a plant product, inhibits electron

flow

from Q-cytoctuome c oxidoreductase C) Carbon monoxide (CO) binds to the reduced form of iron in Heme groups in cytochrome Oxidase

D) Antirnycin

A

inhibits

NADH

dehydrogenase (Complex

I)

59. Which of the

following

statement (s) are conect for an enzyme catalyzed reaction?

A)

the enzyme does not affect the equilibrium constant of the reaction B) the rate of the reaction is linearly dependent on the enzyme concentration.

C) the rate of the reaction is linearly dependent on the substrate concentration.

D) a competitive inhibitor binds to the active site of an enzyme

60. Free radicals have an unpaired electron in the outer orbital. Which of the

following

are the free radicals?

A)

Superoxide B) Hydroxy ion C)

Nitric

oxide anion D) Hydrogen peroxide

61. Symport (cotransport) carriers bind two dissimilar solutes (subsftates)

&

transport them together across a membrane. Transport of the two solutes is obligatorily coupled. The example(s) of such class of carrier proteins are:

A) Adenine nucleotide translocase of the inner mitochondrial mernbrane B) Sodium-dependent glucose transporter

(SLGT-l)

of the intestinal cells C) Sodium independent glucose transporter

GLUT

2

D) Lactose pennease of E.

coli

12

BooKtat ak: a B-12-

62. What statement (s) are true

for

molecules cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP), Inositol trisphosphate

(IP3),

and Caz*?

A)

They are all hydrophilic and are located within the cytosol

B)

They all are small molecules that can diffuse out of a cell

for

cell to cell communicltion

C)

They all relay signals from receptors on the cell surface to target molecules inside the cell

D)

They can amplify the strength of the signal

63. The urea cycle, which is also known as the ornitJrine

cycle_.

A)

takes place both in mitochondria and cytosol of

liver

cells

B) converts two amino groups, one from NI{4* and one from Ornithine to tuea C) converts two amino groups, one from NFI+* and one from Aspartate to urea D) primarily takes place in mitochondria and cytosol of kidney cells in mammals 64. Increase in cortisol from the Zona Fasciculata of the adrenal gland would lead to

A)

^Decrease in protein _catabolism

B)

^Decrease in fatty acid metabolism

C)

Decrease in inflammatory response

D)

Decrease in blood sugar levels

65. An immunologic adjuvant is a substance that A) reduces the

toxicity

of the immunogen.

B) enhances the immunogenicity of haptens.

C) enhances hematopoiesis.

D) enhances the immune response against the immunogen

66.

Which of the

following

is best fended

off with

aTH2 response?

A)

tuberculosis bacteria B)

flu

virus

C) worm ^parasites D) tumor cells

67. A monocot stem cross section differs from a dicot stem cross section in havins:

A)

Numerous and irregularly scattered vascular bundles

B)

Conjoint, collateral and endarch xylem

C)

Only two protoxylem

in

each vascular bundles

D)

Numerous protoxylem and metaxylem vessels in each vascular bundles

68.

A

pure culture

of

bacteria

with

cell walls consisting

of

a

thin

layer

of

peptidoglycan and an outer lipopolysaccharide membrane were treated

with

crystal violet and iodine (purple), followed

13

by

alcohol washes and then staining

with

safranin ^(red)' bacterial slide was observed under microscope. Bacteria microscope.

%osVtdq: u, 8-lL

The

excess

of

stain was washed and under the would appear

A)

Colourless

B)

Pink/red

C)

Purple/violet

D)

Some bacteria would be Pink/red and ^some Purple/violet

6g.

which

^{of the}

following

statements ^are correct about electrostatic interaction?

A) It

involves charged species only.

B) It

is also called ^a salt bridge.

C) It

has energy between 3 ^and 7 kcaUmol.

D) It

is weakened in water.

70.

The strongly hydrogen bonded character of water is responsible

for

which of the

following

characteristic properties of water? Find the correct answer(s).

A) A

high ^heat of fusion, which allows water to act ^{as a} heat sink, such that greater heat loss is

nrr"5*y

^{for the} freezingof water compared to other substances of similar molecular mass.

B) A high heat of vaporization, such that relatively more heat must be input to vaporize water compared to other substances of similar molecular mass.

C)An ability to dissolve most polar compounds.

D)

An

open structure makes ice less ^dense than liquid water, thereby making ice float, insulating the water beneath

it,

^and inhibiting total freezing of large bodies of water.

PART

C

[Each

^{guestion has only one}

right

^answer.

Mark

^the

right

^{answer. Each question canies two}

*orks.

There is negative

marking.

0.66 marks

will

be

deductedfor

^each wrong answer.l 71. Suppose that negatively supercoiled

DNA

with linking number

(L) =23,

^{Twisting number} (T) _{= 25,} and writhing number (W) = ^{-2, is acted upon by}

DNA

gyrase and ATP. After ^one catalytic cycle, what would be the values of L, T, and W?

A) L=25,T=25,W=0 B) L=24,T=25,W=-1

C) L=22,T=25,W=-3

D) L=21,T=25,W=-4

72. Oneparent ^{has a} dominant phenotype ^and the other has a recessive phenotype. Considering that both the offspring have dominant phenotype, what is the possible genotype of the parent with the' dominant ^phenotYPe?

t4

good& a&: s

B.- 1L

A)

Homozygous dominant

only

B)

Heterozygous only

C)

Either homozygous dominant or

heterozygous

¹

D)

Homozygous recessive

only

73.In

rabbits, white coat colour is dominant over beige colour and coat colour is determined by a

single ^gene. Two white rabbits are crossed. They produce 2 white offspring and one beige offspring.

If

the beige offspring is crossed with one of its parents, what percent of the offspring are expected to be white?

A)0

B) 2s

c)

50 D) 75

74.If

a cross between two homozygous recessive genotypes results in non-mutant progeny, the mutations are said to complement each other. Which of the

following

statements are

INCORRECT

in this respect?

A)

Complementation is evidence that alleles are mutations

in

different genes.

B)

Non-complementation is evidence that alleles are mutations

in

same gene.

C) If

two recessive mutations are alleles of the same gene, then a cross between homozygous sffains yields

Fl

progeny that are mutant.

D) tf

two recessive mutations are alleles of the same gene, then a cross between homozygous strains yields

Fl

progeny that are

wild

type.

75. From the

following

Lineweaver-Burk plot, what can you interpret?

A)

rate increases as subsffate concentration increases

B)

activity is independent of substrate concentration after a threshold level

C)

substrate

inhibition

at higher concentration

D) All

of the above

76.z,3-Bisphosphoglyceric

acid (BPG) interacts

with

deoxygenated hemoglobin beta subunits and decrease their

affinity for

oxygen. Given below are three oxygen saturation plots

in

absence or presence of 5

mM

and 8

mM

of BPG. What do plots

1,2

and 3 represent?

14Sl

l5

w6ala&o-. b B-IL

Tissues

Fractional Saturation of

Oxygen in Hemoglobin

20

¹⁰⁰

Pressure ^of Oxygen (torr)

A)

^1: no BPG, 2: 5mM BPG, 3: 8mM BPG

B)

1: 5mM

BPG,2:

no BPG, 3: 8mM BPG

C) l:

no BPG, 2: 8mM BPG, 3: 5mM BPG

D)

^1: 8mM BPG, 2: 5mM BPG, 3: no BPG

77.

Analcoholic has a blood alcohol concentration

of

1.5

mM.

Assume that the Vmax

of

cytosolic alcohol dehydrogenase enzyme ^and the microsomal ethanol oxidizing system (MEOS) are equal and that the Km's are 1.5

mM

and ¹⁵ mM, respectively.

Identify

the correct statement.

A)

The velocity of the

Alcohol

dehydrogenase system

will

be at one-half Vmax B) The velocity of the

Alcohol

dehydrogenase system

will

be at Vmax

C) The velocity of the MEOS system

will

be at Vmax

D) The velocity of the MEOS system

will

be at one-half Vmax

78.

You purified IgG

antibody specific against antigen hen egg albumin

(HEA)

and divided

it

into three parts. Part

I

was untreated,

pmtz

was treated

with

Pepsin and

parl3

was digested with Papain. Which of the tube (s),

1,2

and 3 would precipitate HEA?

A)

Tube

I

and Tube 2

B)

Tube 1 andTube 3

C)

Tube ^1, Tube

2andTube

3

D)

Tubg 2 and Tube 3

79.

HIV-I

was used to infect a macrophages and a T-lymphocyte. The

viral

antigens were processed and presented on the surface of both the type of cells. Which of the

following

is

INCORRECT

concerning the processing ^and presentation of antigens?

A)

^{The viral} immunogenic peptides ^associate with

MHC

class

I

molecules

in

T-cells

B)

The viral immunogenic peptides ^associate with

MHC

class

II

molecules in T-cells

.;tr-

,' 1f

^3,

'i Il

It

T

I , t I I t

t6

Ba2plak cda:g g-19-

C)

The viral immunogenic peptides associate with

MHC

class I moiecules

in

macrophages

D)

The viral immunogenic peptides associate with

MHC

class

I

and

MHC

class

II

molecules

in

macrophages

80. Imniunoglobulin molecules ^possess antigenic determinants and themselves can produce antibodies. The IgG antibodies purified from a mice strain

BALB/c

was injected into (i) rabbit and

(ii)

C57BU6 mouse. What kind of anti-IgG antibodies would be formed in case

(i)

and (ii)?

A)

^{Isotypic and}

Idiotypic B) Allotypic

and lsotypic

C)

Isotypic and

Allotypic D) Allotypic

and

Idiotypic

81.

For detection of levels of IgG immunoglobin

in

a patient serum, you used anti-human IgG antibody raised in goat as primary antibody in your ELISA. Which one of the

following

would you use as the secondary enzyme conjugated antibody for your assays?

A) rabbit anti-goat IgG antibody B) goat anti-rabbit IgG antibody C) rabbft anti-human IgG antibody D) goat anti-goat IgG antibody

82.

A

typical gene utilizes a segment of

DNA

whose molecular weight is one

million.

Approximately how many tums of the helix does this represent?

A) ls B)

1s0

c)

¹⁵⁰⁰

D)

1800

83. You have been asked to make a solution called X. The composition of

X

is 50 mM Glucose, 25 mM Tris.HCl (pH 8) and

l0

mM EDTA. You are given three stock solutions:

(i)

1

M

Glucose,

(ii)

1

M Tris.HCl

(pH 8) and

(iii)

0.5 M

EDTA.

How much of each stock solution

will

you mix;to prepare 100

ml

of solution X?

A) 50mlof l MGlucose+25 mlof l MTris.

HCI (pH

8)+ 10mlof 0.5 MEDTA+

¹⁵

mlof

HzO.

B)

10 ml

of I M

Glucose + 5

ml of I M

Tris. HCI (pH 8) + 4 nrl

of0.

5

M EDTA

+ 81

ml of

HzO.

C)

5

rtl of l M

Glucose + 2.5

ml of l MTris. HCl

^(pH 8)

+2trt

of

0.5 MEDTA+

90.5 ml

of

HzO.

D)

Solution

X

can not be made for the supplied stock solutions.

l7

Brot. V* r"!a: B

84. Assume that amino acids can be represented by spheres having a radius of 3A.

Approximately how many amino acids could make up ^a spherical protein having ^a radius of 2 nm?

A)

3 amino acids

B)

30 amino acids

C)

300 amino acids

D)

30000 amino acids

85. The shape of a red blood cell ^can be approximabd _{as a disk} of 7 ^prm in diameter and 3 _trrm thick.

If

the cell density is close

to

1.30 g/ml, how _{much does a} single red blood cell weigh?

A)

^1.5

x

l0-ro g

B)

1.5

x

10-8 g

C)

^1.5

x

10-6 g

D)

^1.5

x

10-ag

Rough work:

B-t2-

18