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Equations Involving Arithmetic

Functions of Factorials

Ecuaciones que Involucran Funciones Aritm´

eticas de Factoriales

Florian Luca (

luca@matsrv.math.cas.cz

)

Mathematical Institute Czech Academy of Sciences

˘

Zitn´a 25, 115 67 Praha 1 Czech Republic

Abstract

For any positive integer k let φ(k), σ(k), and τ(k) be the Euler function ofk, the divisor sum function ofk, and the number of divisors ofk, respectively. Letfbe any of the functionsφ, σ, orτ. In this note, we show that if a is any positive real number then the diophantine equationf(n!) =am! has only finitely many solutions (m, n). We also find all solutions of the above equation whena= 1.

Key words and phrases:arithmetical function, factorial, diophantine equations.

Resumen

Parak entero positivo sean φ(k), σ(k) y τ(k) la funci´on de Euler dek, la funci´on suma de divisores dek y el n´umero de divisores dek, respectivamente. Seaf cualquiera de las funcionesφ,σ oτ. En esta nota se muestra que siais cualquier n´umero real positivo entonces la ecuaci´on diof´anticaf(n!) =am! tiene s´olo un n´umero finito de solucio-nes (m, n). Tambi´en se hallan todas las soluciones de la mencionada ecuaci´on cuandoa= 1.

Palabras y frases clave:funci´on aritm´etica, factorial, ecuaciones dio-f´anticas.

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1

Introduction

For any positive integer kletφ(k), σ(k) andτ(k) be the Euler’s totient func-tion, the divisor sum and the number of divisors of k, respectively. In this note, we prove the following theorem:

Theorem.

Let abe any positive rational number and let f be any of the arithmetical functionsφ, σ orτ. Then, the equation

f(n!)

m! =a (1)

has only finitely many solutions (m, n).

We also find all the solutions of equation (1) whena= 1.

Corollary.

(i) The only solutions of the equation

φ(n!) =m! (2)

are obtained forn= 0, 1, 2, 3.

(ii) The only solutions of the equation

σ(n!) =m! (3)

are obtained forn= 0, 1.

(iii) The only solutions of the equation

2σ(n!) =m! (4)

are obtained forn= 2, 3, 4, 5.

(iv) The only solutions of the equation

τ(n!) =m! (5)

are obtained forn= 0, 1, 2.

The only reason that we have also treated equation (4) is because it has a rather interesting set of solutions given by

(3)

which is, in Richard Guy’s terminology, just another manifestation of the “law of small numbers”.

Related to equations (3) and (4) above Pomerance (see [4]) showed that the only positive integers nsuch thatn! is multiply perfect (that is, a divisor ofσ(n!)) aren= 1, 3, 5.

Various other diophantine equations involving factorials have been previ-ously treated in the literature. Erd˝os & Obl´ath (see [2]) have studied the equations n! = xp±yp and n!±m! = xp and Erd˝os & Graham have

stud-ied the equationy2 =a

1!a2!. . . ar! (see [1]). The reader interested in results

and open problems concerning diophantine equations involving factorials or arithmetic functions should consult Guy’s excellent book [3].

2

The Proofs

In what followspdenotes a prime number. For a positive integern, we denote byµp(n) the sum of the digits ofnwritten in basep.

2.1

The Proof of the Theorem.

Whenf ∈ {φ, σ}, we use the fact that

n 2 log logn <

n φ(n)<

σ(n)

n for alln >2·10

9, (6)

(see, for example [6]) to conclude that equation (1) has only finitely many solutions (m, n) with m 6= n. We then show that equation (1) has only finitely many solutions (m, n) withm=nas well.

Assume, for example, thatf =φ.

We first show that equation (1) has finitely many solutions withn < m. Indeed, if n≤m−1, we get

am! =φ(n!)< n!≤(m−1)!,

which implies thatm≤1/a.

We now show that equation (1) has only finitely many solutions with m < n. Indeed, assume thatn≥(m+ 1) andn!>2·109. Since (m+ 1)!<

(m+ 1)m+1, it follows, by inequality (6), that

am! =φ(n!)> n! 2 log log(n!) ≥

(m+ 1)! 2 log log(m+ 1)! >

(4)

or

m+ 1<2alog (m+ 1) log(m+ 1)

. (7)

Inequality (7) implies thatmis bounded by a constant depending ona. Hence, equation (1) has only finitely many solutions (m, n) withm6=n. Assume now thatm=n. In this case, we get

1 a =

n! φ(n!) =

Y

p≤n

1 + 1 p−1

. (8)

Since the product from the right side of formula (8) diverges to infinity when ntends to infinity, it follows that equation (8) has only finitely many solutions as well.

Hence, equation (1) has only finitely many solutions (m, n) whenf =φ. The case f =σis entirely analogous.

Assume now thatf =τ. In this case, we use only divisibility arguments to conclude that equation (1) has only finitely many solutions.

For every real numberxletπ(x) be the number of primes less than or equal toxandπ1(x) be the number of primes in the interval (x/2, x]. Since we are

interested in proving that equation (1) has only finitely many solutions, we may assume that both mand nare very large. We use the notationn >>1 and m >> 1 to indicate that we assume that n (respectively m) is large enough.

Write

n! = Y

p≤n

pαp(n).

It is well-known that

αp(n) =

n−µp(n)

p−1 < n. Write equation (1) as

Y

p≤n

(αp(n) + 1) =am! (9)

We first investigate the order at which the prime 2 divides both sides of equation (9). On the one hand, since αp(n) = 1 for all primesp∈(n/2, n],

it follows that the order at which 2 divides the left hand side of equation (9) is at least π1(n). On the other hand, the order at which 2 divides the right

hand side of equation (9) is at mostα2(m) +c < m+c, wherecis a constant

that depends only ona. Hence,

(5)

From the prime number theorem, it follows that n

3 logn< π1(n) forn >>1. Hence,

n

3 logn < m+c, (11)

whenn >>1. From inequality (11), it follows that

n <4mlogm forn >>1. (12)

We now investigate the large primes dividing both sides of equation (9). Assume that m >>1 is such thatm/2 is bigger than the denominator ofa. In this case, all primes q∈(m/2, m] divide the right hand side of equation (9). In particular, every such prime divides at least one of the factors from the right hand side of (9). Since

αp(n) + 1< n+ 1<4mlogm+ 1<(m/2)2,

for m >>1, it follows that every prime q∈(m/2, m] divides exactly one of the factors from the left hand side of equation (9). In particular, there are at leastπ1(m) primesp≤nsuch thatαp(n) + 1 is at leastm/2. Letpbe one of

such primes. Since m

2 < αp(n) + 1 =

n−µp(n)

p−1 + 1<

4mlogm p−1 + 1, it follows that

p <1 + 8mlogm

m−2 <9 logm,

form >>1. But this last inequality shows that there are at mostπ(9 logm)< 9 logmprimes pfor whichαp(n) + 1 can be larger thanm/2. Hence, we get

π1(m)<9 logm,

which, combined with the fact that

π1(m)>

m

3 logm form >>1,

shows that, in fact,mis bounded. Hence, equation (1) has only finitely many solutions when f =τ as well.

The Theorem is therefore proved. ✷

(6)

2.2

The Proof of the Corollary.

The proof of (i). The statement is true forn≤4. Now suppose thatn≥5. Writen! = 2s·twheretis odd. Thenφ(n!) = 2s−1φ(t) whereφ(t) is divisible

byQ

p≤n(p−1). In particular,φ(t) is divisible by (3−1)(5−1) = 8. It now

follows that the exponent of 2 in the prime factor decomposition of φ(n!) is at least s−1 + 3> s. On the other hand, since m! =φ(n!)< n!, it follows thatm < n. Thus, the exponent of 2 in the prime factor decomposition ofm! cannot exceeds. This gives the desired contradiction. ✷

(7)

Equation (5) can now be rewritten as

(α1(n) + 1)(α2(n) + 1). . .(αpπ(n)(n) + 1) =m!. (14)

We now use the inequality

π(2x)−π(x)> 3x

5 logx forx >20.5 (15)

(see [6]) withx=n/2, to conclude that at least 3n

10 log(n/2) of theαi(n)’s are equal to 1. Hence,

m≥m−µ2(m) = ord2(m!) = ord2

π(n)

Y

i=1

(αpi(n) + 1)

> 3n

10 log(n/2), (16)

which proves 1).

2) Suppose that (n, m) is a solution of equation (5) with m≥340. Ap-plying inequality (16) forx=m/2, it follows that there are at least

k=h 3m 10 log(m/2)

i

+ 1

primes qsuch thatm/2< q≤m. Since all these primes divide

π(n)

Y

i=1

(αi+ 1),

we conclude that one of the following situations must occur:

CASE 1. There exist two primespandqsuch thatm/2< p < q≤mand pq |αi(n) + 1for somei≥1.

In this case

n≥n−µ2(n) + 1≥α1(n) + 1≥αi(n) + 1≥pq >

m2

4 > m2

12. (17)

CASE 2. For everyi≥1 the numberαi(n) + 1is divisible by at most one

primep > m/2.

(8)

are k such primes and each one of the numbers αi(n) + 1 is divisisble by From inequality (19), it follows that in order to prove that n > m2/12 it

suffices to show that

Step II.The only solutions(n, m)of equation(5)are the asserted ones. We first show that if (n, m) is a solution, thenm <340 and n <9608. Suppose thatm≥340. In this case, by 2) of Step I, it follows that

(9)

or

m <40 logm

2

24

. (22)

Inequality (22) implies that m <338.95<340.

We now show that n < 9608. Suppose that n >41. By 1) of Step I, it follows that

3n

10 log(n/2) < m <340. Hence,

n < 3400 3 log

n

2

. (23)

Inequality (23) implies that n <9607.5<9608.

One can now use Mathematica to test that the asserted solutions are the only ones in the rangem <340 and n <9608.

Acknowledgements

I would like to thank Bob Bell who developed a Mathematica code which tested for the solutions of equation (5) in the range m <340 andn <9608.

I would also like to thank a couple of anonymous referees for suggestions which greatly improved this note.

References

[1] P. Erd¨os, R. Graham, On products of factorials, Bull. Inst. Math. Acad. Sinica, Taiwan,4(1976), 337–355.

[2] P. Erd¨os, R. Obl´ath,Uber diophantische Gleichungen der Form¨ n! =xp±

yp undn!±m! =xp, Acta Szeged. 8(1937), 241–255.

[3] R. K. Guy, Unsolved Problems in Number Theory, Springer-Verlag, New York, 1994.

[4] C. Pomerance,Problem 10331, Amer. Math. Monthly100(1993), 796.

[5] B. Rosser,The n-th prime is greater than n log n, Proc. Lond. Math. Soc. (2)45(1939), 21–44.

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