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6 Appendix

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Proof of Lemma 1. Suppose it is optimal for every buyer to choosed = 1. The optimal offer pair{qs,b, τs,b}solves the Nash program

qs,bmaxs,b [u(qs,b)−τs,b(Vb−Vb−1)]θ[−qs,b+τs,b(Vs+1−Vs)]1−θ s.tτs,b1 Suppose thatVs+1> Vs, otherwise no trade would take place. Substituting forτs,b, consider the Lagrangian

λs,bmax,qs,bs,b

[u(qs,b)−τs,b(Vb−Vb−1)]θ[−qs,b+τs,b(Vs+1−Vs)]1−θ +λs,b(1−τs,b)

whereλs,bis the multiplier onτs,b1, independent ofdbecause in the equilibrium conjectured every buyer offersd= 1.The equilibriumqs,b, τs,bandλs,bmust satisfy three sufficient and necessary first-order conditions

u(qs,b) θ

1−θ =u(qs,b)−τs,b(Vb−Vb−1)

−qs,b+τs,b(Vs+1−Vs) Vb−Vb−1

Vs+1−Vs θ

1−θ =u(qs,b)−τs,b(Vb−Vb−1)

−qs,b+τs,b(Vs+1−Vs) −λs,bA λs,b(1−τs,b) = 0

whereA=

−qs,b+τs,b(Vs+1−Vs) u(qs,b)−τs,b(Vb−Vb−1)

θ

0.Note howqs,bandτs,bgenerally depend on both the seller’s and the buyer’s wealth positions, via their reservation values Vs+1−VsandVb−Vb−1, and their relative bargaining powers,θ/(1−θ).Two cases might arise, depending on whether the constraintτs,b1is binding or not.

1. Ifτs,b = 1thenλs,b>0. Henceu(qs,b) =1−θθ ·u(q−qs,bs,b)(V+Vs+1b−V−Vb−1s). 2. Ifτs,b 1thenλs,b = 0. Henceu(qs,b) = VVbs+1−V−Vb−1s ⇒qs,b =

)Vs+1−Vs

Vb−Vb−1

*1

γ. That is the marginal utility from consumption from spendingd= 1,with prob- ability τs,b, must be equal to the ratios of the value of that unit of money to seller and buyer. Notice that since VVs+1−Vs

b−Vb−1 = 1,in general, the quantity trade will be generally inefficient, unless buyer and seller ‘swap’ wealth positions (i.e.

s=b−1).

From the first order conditions we obtain τs,b= (1−θ) u(qs,b)

Vb−Vb−1 +θ qs,b Vs+1−Vs

= qs,b Vs+1−Vs

(1−θ) u(qs,b) qs,bu(qs,b)+θ

= qs,b Vs+1−Vs

1−θγ 1−γ so that we see that, givenV qs,b

s+1−Vs, τs,bdecreases inθ. Proof of Lemma 2. Ifd= 1andτs,b(0,1), then forn= 0, N

ρVn= γ 1−γ

N1 s=0

ms Vs+1−Vs Vn−Vn−1

1−γ

γ

Note that

ρVn(Vn−Vn−1)1−γγ = γ 1−γ

N−1

s=0

ms(Vs+1−Vs)1−γγ

is independent ofn.It follows that forn≥2 : Vn(Vn−Vn−1)1−γγ

Vn−1(Vn−1−Vn−2)1−γγ = 1 Vn

Vn−1 = Vn−1−Vn−2 Vn−Vn−1

1−γγ

VN V1

= V1−V0 VN−VN1

1−γγ

because of a telescoping product.

If we leta1= 1,a0= 0, andVn =anV1then VVn

n−1 = aan−1n andVn−Vn−1= (an−an−1)V1.Therefore we can find{an}Nn=1recursively:

a2

a1 = )V1−V0

V2−V1

*1−γγ

a

1−γγ

2 (a21) = 1(sincea1= 1) a

1−γγ

n (an−an−1) = 12< n≤N

Thusanis a function solely ofγ,hinging ona2=a(γ).It is easy to see thata2>1 anda2<2becausea

1−γγ

2 (a21)increases ina2and ata2= 2does not satisfy the equality above. Also,{an−an−1}is a positive but decreasing sequence (because an−an−1 = 1/a

1−γγ

n ,an−an−1must be decreasing inn).ThereforeVn is an increasing function ofn,and{Vn−Vn−1}is a decreasing sequence.

Use the result thatVn−Vn−1= (an−an−1)V1.Then:

ρV1(V1−V0)1−γγ = γ 1−γ

N1 s=0

ms(Vs+1−Vs)1−γγ

ρV1(V1)1−γγ = γ 1−γ

N−1

s=0

ms(as+1−as)1−γγ V

1−γ

1 γ

(useVs−Vs−1= (as−as−1)V1) ρV1= γ

1−γ

N−1

s=0

ms(as+1−as)1−γγ

ρV1= γ 1−γ

N−1

s=0

ms

as+1 (use(as+1−as)1−γγ =a1s+1) where we notice thatV1<∞since{as+1−as}is a converging sequence.

Using the definition ofan,τs,b= a

1γ b

as+1V1.Hence,s,b}is a sequence increasing

inband decreasing ins.

Proof of Lemma 3. To start we notice that (10) - (12) imply mn

N b=1

τn,bmb=mn+1

N−1

s=0

τs,n+1ms ∀n=N (17)

which means that the expected money flow to sellers withnunits of money, must be equal to the expected money outflow of buyers withn+ 1units of money. To see why this holds, start with (10), and then use it in (11) withn= 1. Observe that only the summations to the extreme left and extreme right of (11) are left (the inner summations cancel out). Then repeat it recursively, for eachn < N.

Now use (17) replacing the lotteries by their expressions given in (9) to get

mn

an+1

N

b=1ab1−γ1 mb=mn+1an+11−γ1 N1

s=0 ms

as+1 ∀n=N

mmn+1

n a

2−γ1−γ

n+1=

N

b=1a

1−γ1 b mb

N−1 s=0 ms

as+1

mmn+1n =mm01a

2−γ1−γ

n+1 ∀n=N

(18)

since (10) impliesmm1

0 =

N

b=1a

1−γ1 b mb

N−1

s=0 ms as+1

after one substitutes for (9).

We can use the last line of (18) for any two adjacentnandn+ 1to obtain m2n

mn+1mn−1 = an+1 an

2−γ1−γ

∀n= 0, N (19)

This tells us that 'an+1

an

(N1

n=1 is a decreasing sequence so that ' mn

mn+1

mn

mn−1

(N−1

n=1

is a decreasing sequence also. It follows that ' mn

mn+1

(N1

n=1 cannot be an increasing sequence, i.e.mn > mn+1∀n= 0, N cannot be an equilibrium. Now use the last line of (18). We see thatm0> m1is not possible (it would implymn> mn+1∀n= 0, N). Thusm0 < m1must hold. Sincemn > mn+1∀n = 0, N is not possible, then the only equilibrium ismn < mn+1for some1 ≤n < nandmn > mn+1 forn≥n.That is,{mn}is hump-shaped.

Since mmn+1

0 = mmn+1n ×mmn−1n ×...×mm10 andmmn

n+1 = mm01a

2−γ1−γ

n+1 then mn+1

m0 = m1 m0

n+1

Πj=1n+1a

2−γ1−γ

j for all n=N.

LetAn+1=Πj=1n+1a

2−γ1−γ

j forn=N, and notice thatA0= 1.Then, the stationary distribution solves the system ofN+ 1non-linear equations inN+ 1unknowns.:

mn+1=m0 )m1

m0

*n+1

An+1 ∀n= 0, N m0+N−1

n=0 m0 )m1

m0

*n+1

An+1= 1 N−1

n=0 (n+ 1)m0 )m1

m0

*n+1

An+1=M These expressions can be rewritten to yield (13) and (14).

We next show uniqueness of the stationary distribution for anyN and money supplyM (0, N). The first thing to note is thatm0+N−1

n=0 m0 )m1

m0

*n+1

An+1= 1 implies ∂m∂m1

0 < 0. Thus, for any N andm0 there is a uniqueM that satisfies mn+1=m0

)m1

m0

*n+1

An+1andm0+N−1

n=0 m0 )m1

m0

*n+1

An+1= 1. Next, note thatN1

n=0 (n+ 1)m0 )m1

m0

*n+1

×An+1=M implies thatm0is monotonically decreasing inM (recall that ∂m∂m1

0 < 0). Accordingly, for anynandM (0, N)

there is a unique{mn}satisfying (13) and (14).

Proof of Lemma 4.Letθ= 1.Supposed= 1andτs,b(0,1)∀b, sis an equilibrium.

Consider the strategy of a representative buyerbin a match with a sellers.To prove individual optimality of the strategy proposed we take three steps. Finally, we prove that every single coincidence match will result in a trade. That is the buyer always puts a positive probability on the transfer ofd= 1.

1. First, we prove that if a buyer offers a lottery on the transfer of d Ds,b units of money, thend = 1is individually optimal. The proof is by means of contradiction. Pick any feasible offerdand suppose that the buyer wants to offer a lottery. Since the buyer extracts the seller’s entire surplus, then the optimal transfer probability must satisfyτs,b(d)[0,1]and

τs,b(d) = qs,b(d) Vs+d−Vs.

Given this probability, the buyer choosesqs,b(d)to maximize his surplus u[qs,b(d)]−τs,b(d)(Vb−Vb−d) =u[qs,b(d)]−qs,b(d)Vb−Vb−d

Vs+d−Vs. Sinceu(q) = q1−γ1−γ,then optimal consumption is

qs,b(d) = Vs+d−Vs Vb−Vb−d

1γ

. (20)

The implication is that, givend∈Ds,b,whenτs,b(d)andqs,b(d)are optimally chosen then the buyer’s surplus isu[qs,b(d)]−qs,b(d)qs,b(d)γ,or

γu[qs,b(d)]. (21)

Clearly thedthat maximizes (21) must generate the largest quantity, i.e. it must maximizeqs,b(d) =

)Vs+d−Vs

Vb−Vb−d

*1

γ.It is easily proved that Vb−Vb−d

Vs+d−Vs = (Vb−Vb−1) + (Vb−1−Vb−2) +...+ (Vb−d+1−Vb−d) (Vs+d−Vs+d−1) + (Vs+d−1−Vs+d−2) +...+ (Vs+1−Vs)

Vb−Vb−1

Vs+1−Vs ∀d≥1

sinceVb−Vb−1 < Vb−1−Vb−2 < .. < Vb−d+1−Vb−d,whileVs+1−Vs >

Vs+2−Vs+1> ... > Vs+d−Vs+d−1,because{Vn+1−Vn}is a decreasing se- quence, in equilibrium. That is, raisingdabove one, increases the numerator and decreases the denominator of the ratioVVb−Vb−d

s+d−Vs.SinceVVb−Vb−d

s+d−Vs VVbs+1−V−Vb−1s∀d≥ 1,then it follows that settingd 2is worse than offeringd = 1.Offering a lottery ond≥2is suboptimal because, in the equilibrium conjectured, it simply reduces the quantity consumed by the buyer, hence his surplus.

2. Now we provide a condition guaranteeing thatτs,b<1is individually optimal.

That is, offeringd = 1with certainty is suboptimal. In the conjectured equi- libriumτs,b(1) = τs,b, defined by (3) forθ = 1.Becauses,b}is increasing inband decreasing ins,it follows that a sufficient condition forτs,b(1)<1is τ0,N <1.Using the results in the prior Lemmas, this amounts to the inequality

a1N

V1 <1that, substituting forV1can be rearranged as ρ <ρ¯= γ

1−γ 1 a

1 γ

N N−1

s=0

ms as+1.

It is seen that the sequences{an}and{ms}only depend onγ,M,andN. 3. Finally, we prove that every buyer offers to spendsomethinginevery single-

coincidence match, i.e. τs,b > 0∀s, b is individually optimal. Since τs,b =

qs,b

Vs+1−Vs in equilibrium, the buyer’s expected surplus is positive in every possi- ble match, i.e.u(qs,b)−τs,b(Vb−Vb−1)≡γu(qs,b)>0∀s, b.In equilibrium qs,b=

)Vs+1−Vs

Vb−Vb−1

*1

γ.Thereforeτs,b >0.

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Chapter 5. Price dispersion, inflation

and the value of money

Dalam dokumen 3-540-29500-3.pdf (Halaman 186-194)