Beokb.[ coQo ', C

B -12-

Hall

Ticket No

Beokb.[ coQo ', C

M.

^Sc. Entrance

Examination,

^F'ebruary

20t3,

Booklet Code: C Time: 2

hrs -- ,

^{(M. Sc.}

Biochemistrv)

^Max

Marks:

1{X) Please read the following instructions carefully before answering:

l.

^Enter Hall Ticket number in the space provided above and also on OMR ^sheet.

2.

Paper contains three sections: Part

A,

Part

B

and Pan C together

with

85 questions

for

100 marks.

Part A

contains 25 questions, each question carries one

mark. Part B

contains 45 questions, each question carries one mark. Part C contains 15 questions, each question carries two marks

3.

Part A

will

be used

for

tie breaking.

4. In Part A

there

is

^negative

marking.

0.33 marks

will

be detlucted

for

each

wrong

answer.In Part B there is no negative marking.

In

Part C there is negative

marking.

0.66 marks

will

be deducted

for

each wrong arswer.

5.

Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheet as per the'instructions provided.

6.

Apart from OMR sheet, ihe question paper contains 18 @ighteen) ^pages including the insffuctions.

7.

Please

return

the OMR answer sheet at the entl of the examination.

8,

No additional sheet

will

be provided.

9.

Rough work can be carried out

in

the question paper itself

in

the space provided at the end of the booklet.

10. Non programrnable calculators are allowed.

I 1. Candidate should write and darken the conect Booklet Code of the question paper in the OMR Answer Sheet, without which such OMR answer sheets cannot be evaluated. The defaulting candidates

in

marking the Booklet Code

in

the OMR sheet shall not have any claim on their examination and the University shall not be held responsible for the lapse on the part ofthe candidate/s.

PART

A

[Each

Suestion has only one right answer. Mark the right answer. Earch question carries one r4ark. There is negative marking. 0.33 marlu

willbe

deiluctedfor each wrong answer.l

1. In an adiabatic change of a gaseous systern the following parameters remain unchanged A) pressure

B) pressure and temperature C) volume

D) heat

2. A Carnot cycle has

A) two isothermals and two adiabatics B) two adiabatics and rwo isochorics C) two adiabatics and two isobarics

D) two adiabatics, one isobaric and one

isochoric

L

^

BmptC a&P: c

B- l?-

3.

A

system is said to be in thermodynamic equilibrium when

it

is in

A)

thermal equilibrium alone

B) thermal ^and mechanical equilibrium simultaneously C) thermal ^and chemical equilibrium alone

D) thermal, mechanical and chemical equilibrium simultaneously 4. The value of g (acceleration ^due to gravity) is maximum at

A)

the surface of the

eath

B) at the cenffe of the earth C) at 36000

ft

above earth

D) at 36000 ft below the surface of the earth

5. tn two different cells containing CuSO+ and AgNO3 solutions, equal amount of current is passed to produce 0.106 gm of Cu and 0.3577 gm of Ag respectively. What is the chemical equivalent of Ag, given that the chemical equivalent of Cu is 31.8?

A)2t6

B)

¹⁰⁸

c)

54 D) s8.9

6. What is the normality of NazCOl solution ^made by

diluting

¹⁵ cc of 9

N

NazCO3 with 75 cc

of

water?

A) l.s

N

B)

1.8 N

c)2N D)3N

7. The type of gametes produced

by

^an individual with genotype Aa Bb are

A) AB:ab B) ab;AB

C) aB;Ab

D)

all of the above

8. Dominance in which the phenotype of the heterozygous genotype shows ^the phenotypic characteristics of both homozygous genotypes is called

A)

Codominance

B)

Psuedo-dominance

C)

Incomplete dominance

D)

None of the above

Fr;o4\AcoJa'. c

B -\e-

9. Vinblastine is a poison that prevents the polymerization of microtubules. Which of the following processes are

likely

to be affected in the presence of Vinblastine?

A)

Protein synthesis on polysomes

B)

Protein synthesis on free ribosomes

C)

Ribosome assembly

D)

Cell division

10. You would

like

to

purify

the receptor

for

growth hormone which is a polypetide. Which cellular fraction is the best choice to isolate the receptor?

A)

Membrane fraction

B)

Cytosolic fraction

C)

Nuclear extract

D)

None of the above

11. A major function of the

liver

is to detoxify drugs. Which of the

following

organelles is critical for this function?

A)

Endoplasmic reticulum

B)

Lysosomes

C)

Nucleus

D)

Mitochondria

12.In

Southern blotting, nucleic acid on the nitrocellulose membrane is denatured by treatment with NaOH, however, in Northern blotting, this is not done so because the nucleic acid gets hydrolyzed. Which chemical nature of the nucleic acid in Northern blot is responsible

for

this?

A) The presence

of

a 3'-5'phosphodiester linkage B) The presence of uracil

C) The presence of a

2'-hydroxyl

group D) The presence of a

3'-hydroxyl

group

13. A person with lactose intolerance is most

likely

deficient in breaking which type of chemical bond?

A)

An ester linkage B) A phbsphodiester bond C) An amide bond

D)

A

glycosidic bond

14. Cascade amplification means an increase

in

the activity of

just

one molecule at the top of the cascade can result in a large response further down the cascade. In glycogen metabolism cascade, assuming that ttre turnover number

of

all enzymes involved

in

glycogen metabolic regulation and

activity is 50

^reactions

per

second,

how many

glucose molecules

could be

removed

from

glycogen

in

¹ s upon activation of one molecule of protein kinase

A

(PKA)?

baklej, G&!-: c g-lL

(A) 50 (B) 2s00

(c)

12s00

(D)

12s000

15. How

will

you calculate the overall Gibbs free energy change for the reaction

A

+ B ⁺⁺ C + D at25oC?

A)

AG = AGo'+

RT

B) AG = AGo'+ ^RT

ln (tcltDl{AltBl)

C) AG = AGo'+ RT

ln (tAltBl/tcltDl)

D) AG = AGo'+ ^RT

ln (tcltDl)

16. The excess carbons of citrate ^can be used to produce glycogen in the liver. Which one of the following liver enzymes is required

for

this conversion to occur?

A)

Glucose-6-phosphatase B) Pymvate carboxylase C) Pymvate kinase

D) o-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase

17. Which of the

following

graphs represents a Lineweaver Burk plot

of

a non-competitive inhibition?

A) GraphA

B) Graph B C) Graph C

D)

Graph D

BooKto{ cok: c g4%

18. Which of the

following

is

NOT

^{a product of} photoreduction in photosynthesis?

A)

Oxygen B) ATP C)

NADPH

D) Sugar

19. Which reaction (s) is the oxidative reaction in glycolysis?

A)

Phosphate is added to the glucose ^at the C-6 position by hexokinase

B) Glucose-6-phosphate is changed into fructose-6-phosphate by phosphoglucoisomerase C) Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate is converted to 1, 3 bisphosphoglycerate

by

triose phosphate dehydrogenase

D)

1,3-bisphoshoglycerate is converted to 3-phosphoglycerate by phosphoglycerokinase

20. Each cycle

of

p-oxidation, liberates a

two

carbon

unit

(acetyl-CoA) which enters the Kreb's cycle

for

complete

degadation to yield

ATPs.

What is the

net

gain of ATP in palmitic

acid (CH3(CH2) r+COzH) oxidation?

A)

¹³¹

B)

3s

c)

⁹⁶

D)

129

21. When ^a muscle cell is working very hard,

it

produces a

lot

of ADP from ATP. Under these conditions, myokinase can

combine

^and

-

to form ATP.

A)

ADP, Pi B) ADP,

AMP

C) ADP, ADP D) AMP, 2Pi

22.For the reaction SOz + VzO2= SO:,

if

we write Kp=

K

(RT)*, then x becomes:

A)

^-1

B) -U2

c) v2 D)l

23. Which of the

following

statement(s) are true about

formic

acid?

A) It

is ^a weaker acid than acetic acid'

B) It

is a reducing agent.

C)

When its calcium salt is heated,

it

forms ^a ketone.

D) It

is an oxidizing agent.

B-l%

24. Most enzyme catalyzedreactions occur m

A)

nanoseconds

B)

microseconds

C)

milliseconds

D)

seconds

25. X-raYs consist

of

A) NegativelY Charged Particles

Bj;;fu"*agnetic *aves

^of long wavelength C) PositivelY Charged Particles

;iEi;dgneti-

^waves

of

short wavelenglh

PART B

[These ^{questions may have o!e^}

!,

^more

right

^answers.

Mark all

^the

right

^answers.

For instance,

if

there orc

tirw right

^{answers to a}

particular

^{question' you have}

tomarkatlthethreerightoptions.Mgrkingone,twoorfourwiltbeconsideredaswrong

answer, There

x

"o-"iio:n

^e

markingfor incorrect

^answers

in

^this

part'l

26. An unknown erement forms an oxide.

what w'l

^be the equivarent weight of the element

if

mt "-ig*

^{content \s20%o of} the above compound by weight?

A)

¹⁶

B)

³²

c)8

D)

64

2T.Benzoylation of ^phenol in alkaline medium is known ^as:

A)

Friedel Craft reaction

B)

Wurtz-Fitting ^reaction

C)

Schotten- Baumann reaction

D)

Sabatier- Sandern reaction

28.AcompoundXonheatinggivesacolourlessgas.Thisresidueisdissolvedinwatertoobtain y.

_when excess

co2

is bubbred through aqueous-sorution of

y,

_{Z is}

formed.zongentle

^heating gives back

X.

The comPound

X

is

;

A)

CaCOr

B)

Ca(HCOr)z

C)

NazCO:

D)

NaIICO3

t%oYW cofu-: L

tbdq.t c"&.a: c

B -19-

29.T\e

^{radius of}

first

^{orbit of} hydrogen atom ls

A)

0.025 nm

B) 0.05 nm

c)

0.2s

A

D)

5xl0-e

cm

30.

whi;h

of the

following

^{is a} covalently bonded crystal?

A)

Aluminium B) Sodium Chloride C) Germanium D) Manganese oxide

31.

An

electric heater can be made from wires

of A)

Copper

B)

Aluminium

C) Tungsten D) Nicrome

3l.T\efust

^law of thermodynamics ^deals

with A)

conservation of energy principle

B) defining the concept of temperature C) expansion of ^gas

D) relation between heat and

work

33.

A

perfectly white body is defined ^{as a} body from where

A)

no energy is transmitted

B) no energy is absorbed C) all energy is reflected D) reflection is diffused

34. Agreen glass looks ^{green because}

it

absorbs red

light

strongly and reflects the green'

when

such ^a green ^glass is hea:ted

in

a furnace ^and then taken out

it

is found to glow

with

a light

of

which color?

A)

green B) red C) white D) black

35.ForwaterCp(specificheatatconstantpressure)andCv(specificheatatconstantvolume)

are equal

tbkbl co&Qi c B,-lc-

A)

when T=0oK B) when T=OoC

Ciwheri

^T=l00oC D) when T=4oC

36.

A

Carnot engine whose

low

temperatufe resefvoir is ^at 27oC andhas an efficiency of ^50Vo' what is the temperature of the source in degree centigrade?

A) 6o0oc

B)327'C c) 400r

D)527'C

37.T\eratio

^of specific heats (gamma) = CplCv for ^a triatomic ^gas is

A)

1.0

B)

1.33

c)

^1.40,

D)

^1.66

3g. An atom

in

a solid is supposed to execute ^a simple harmonic motion about its ^mean position when

A)

it

^{makes a to and}

fro

^{motion in a straight line}

Bithe

force is proportionat to

X (whetr X ir

the displacement about the mean position) C) the force is proportional to X2 (where

X

is the displacement about the mean position)

pittre

_{force is} proportional

to lX(where X

is the displacement about the mean position) 39. The unit of energy

of

^a system ^can be represented by

A)

erg B) dyne C) joule D) newton

40.

It

is

difficult

to cook in a

hill

station because

A)

the temperature is

low

B) boiling point of water is

low

C) pressure is high

D) pressure is less

41. For isotopes, which of the

following

quantities have integer values

A)

atomic number

B) mass number

Mt<tpt coQ!-: c

B-l%-

C) atomic weight

D)

number of electrons

42. Which of thre

following

statements about recA, a protein involved in homologous.

recombination ^irn

Z. coli,

^are correct?

A) It

hydrolyzcs

ATP

to promote branch migration.

B) It

binds to single-stranded

DNA

to form ^a filament.

C) It

is an ATlr-dependent nuclease that generates single-stranded

DNA.

ni t

facilitatesr the search

of

duplex

DNA

^for regions

with

sequence similarities to ^the invading single-stranded

DNA.

43. Which of the

following

statements about transcriptional enhancers are correct?

A) Thei

may I'unction ^as promoters.

B)

They may I'unction when on either side of the activated promoter.

C)

They may l'unction even when located many base-pairs away from the promoter.

D)

They may I'unction only

in

^specific types of cells and tissues.

44. Eukaryotic

mRNA

splicing involves which of ^the

following?

A)

^{The formation}

of 2'+ 5'

phosphodiester bonds'

B)

A

sequence.specific endoribonuclease to hydrolyze the phosphodiester bond at ^the junctions of the introns vvith the exons.

c)

The couplin.g of phosphodiester bond formation to ATP hydrolysis.

D)

The formation of lariat intermediate.

45. Which of t6e

following

statements about the aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase reaction ^are correct?

;

A) A

mixed-arrhydride bond is formed.

B)

An

acyl-ester bond is formed.

C)

An

acyl-thi,rester bond is formed' D)

A

phosphoirmide (P-N) bond is formed.

46.

DNA

synthesis begins

A)

at a single location in E.

coli

genome.

B) at a single location

in

SV40 genome.

C) at a single location

in

yeast genome.

D)

at a site(s) that is G-C

rich

in E.

coli

^genome.

9

tuk\art cofu: c B-\L

47 . 1,:2:1 is the expected ratio

of- in

an F2 progeny

of

^a single gene (mono hybrid cross)

A)

Phenotypes when one

of

the alleles is dominant

B)

Genotypes 'when one of the alleles is dominant

Ci

ComUinatiorrs of heterozygous genotypes

D)

Combinations of homozygous genotypes

4g. The nucleus

of

which of the

following

cells.contains 2n number of chromosomes?

A) Liver cell

B)

Endosperm

C)

Zygote

D)

Gametophy;e

49. Which of the

following

organelles ^are bound by double-membranes?

A)

Nucleus

B)

Mitochondria

C)

Chloroplast

D)

Peroxisomes

50. Which of the

following

statements ^are true?

A)

Nuclear pore complexes facilitate transport of proteins and

RNA

across the nuclear membrane.

B)

Transport of proteins across the mitochondria is an active process.

C)

Perolrisomes import completely folded ^proteins.

ni

nnOoptasmi.c reticulum is contiguous

with

the outer nuclear membrane'

51. The key difference between active transport across membranes versus secondary active transport is

A)

Requirement

for

specific proteins

B)

Transport

of solute

^{across a} concentration gradient

C) Being

^drivrln

by

an electrochemical gradient

D)

Coupling

rt

"nitg.tically

unfavourable reaction to an energetically favourable one 52. Given that rhe isoelectric points (pI) of amino acids Aspartate is 2.85, Histidine is 7.6, Arginine

is

10.'76 and Glutamine 5.65. In a buffer of pH ?, which of the amino acid (s) would migrate towards anode?

A)

Histidine

B)

Aspdrtate

C)

^Arginine

D)

Glutamine

10

BarKtd da: c B-IL

53.

The mutation

in

sickle

cell

disease

is

a valine

for

glutamate substitution at position 6

of

the p-chain of haemoglobin, removing a negative charge from the haemoglobin molecule ^because

of which the migration of the protein band in a polyacrylamide gel is altered. p-chain of

haemoglobin

from

^a normal, a carrier and ^a sickle cell patient were run on ^a polyacrylamide gel, the representation of which is given below. Identify the samples run

in

lane 1,

2 and3.

t23,,.\

-r

ti/

A)

Lane 1: Canier;

l-ane2:

Patient

with

sickle cell; Lane 3: Normal

B)

Lane

1:

Normal; LaneZ: Patient

with

sickle cell; Lane 3: Carrier

C)

Lane 1: Carrier;

Lane2:

Normal; Lane 3: Patient

with

sickle

cell D)

Lane ^1: Normal;

Lane2:

Carrier; Lane 3: Patient

with

sicHe

cell

54. Which of the

following

statement (s) about ATP is

INCORRECT?

A) AT"

is a building block of

RNA.

B) The hydrolysis of ATP to

ADP

and Pi is an endergonic reaction.

C) The phosphate bond energy of

ATP

may be ffansformed into

light.

D)

The phosphate bond energy of

ATP

is used to power catabolic metabolism.

55. The methods by which ATP is formed inside ^a cell are:

A)

Subsuate level phosphorylation B) Protein phosphorylation

C) Oxidative phosphorylation

D) Lohmann reaction (Break down of creatine-P coupled

with ADP)

56.

With

respect to

inhibition

of elecfton transport chain which of the

following

^are true?

A)

Cyanide binds to the iron in the Heme groups

in

cytochrome Oxidase

B) Rotenone, ^a plant product,

inhibits

electron

flow

from Q-cytochrome c oxidoreductase C) Carbon monoxide (CO) binds to the reduced form of iron in Heme groups in cytochrome Oxidase

D)

Antimycin

A

inhibits

NADH

tiehydrogenase (Complex

t)

;

57. Which of the

following

statement (s) are correct for an enzyme catalyzed'reaction?

A)

the enzyme does not affect the equilibrium constant of the reaction B) the rate of the reaction is linearly dependent on the enzyme concentration.

C) the rate of the reaction is linearly dependent on the substrate concentration.

D)

a competitive

inhibitor

binds to the active site of an enzyme CI

ll

fuFtoft cdQ-'- c

B -12-

5g. Free radicals have an unpaired electron in the outer orbital.

which

of the

following

^{are the} free radicals?

A)

Superoxide

B)

Hydroxy

ion

C)

Nitric

oxide anion D) Hydrogen peroxide

59. Symport (cotransport)

cariers

bind two dissimilar solutes (subsfrates)

&

transport them together across ^a membrane. Transport of the two solutes is

obligatorily

coupled. The example(s)

^€ ^,.^L ^l^-. ^f nonyiot nrnfolnc qre' (rI D(ltvU WTCOO vI vqllvr yrvlvu^u Cgv'

A)

Adenine nucleotide translocase of the inner mitochondrial membrane B) Sodium-dependent glucose transporter

(SLGT-l)

of the intestinal cells C) Sodium independent glucose transporter

GLUT

2

D) Lactose pefinease of E.

coli

60. What statement (s) are ffue

for

molecules cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP), Inositol trisphosphate (IP3), and Ca2*?

A)

They are all

hydrophilic

and are located

within

the cytosol

B)

They all are small molecules that can diffirse out of a cell

for

cell to cell communication

C)

They all relay signals from receptors on the cell surface to target molecules inside the cel1

D)

They can amplify the strength of the signal

61. The urea cycle, which is also known as the ornithine

cycle-.

A) takes place both

in

mitochondria and cytosgl of

liver

cells

B) converts two amino groups, one from NI{4* and one from Ornithine to urea C) converts two amino groups, one from NHa* and one from Aspartate to urea D) primarily takes place

in

mitochondria ^and cytosol of kidney cells

in

mammals

62. Increase in cortisol

from

theZ-onaFasciculata of the adrenal giand would lead to

;

A)

Decrease in protein catabolism

B)

^{Decrease in}

fatty

^{acid metabolism}

C)

^Decrease in inflammatory ^response

D)

Decrease in blood sugar levels

63. An immunologic adjuvant is a substance that

A)

reduces the

toxicity

of the immunogen.

B) enhances tbe immunogenicity of ^haptens.

t2

tuElai,c&: c g-lL

C) ^enhances hematopoiesis.

D)

enhances the immune response against the immunogen

64.

^{Which of the}

following

is best fended

offwith

^{aTHZ response?}

A)

tuberculosis bacteria B)

flu

virus

C) worm parasites D) tumor cells

65.

A

monocot stem cross section differs from ^a dicot stem cross section in having:

A)

Numerous and

irregularly

scattered vascular bundles

B)

Conjoint, collateral and endarch

xylem

C)

Only two protoxylem

in

each vascular bundles

D) Numero

s protoxylem and metaxylem vessels in each vascular bundles

66.

A

pure culture

of

bacteria

with cell

walls consisting

of

a

thin

layer

of

peptidoglycan and an outer lipopolysaccharide membrane were treated

with

crystal

violet

and iodine (purple),

followed by

alcohol washes and then staining

with

safranin (red).

The

excess

of

stain was washed and bacterial slide was observed under microscope. Bacteria

would appear

^{under the}

microscope.

A)

Colourless

B)

Pink/red

C)

Purple/violet

D)

Some bacteria would be Pink/red and some Purple/violet

67. Which of the

following

statements are correct about electrostatic interaction?

A) It

involves charged species only.

B) It

is also called ^a salt bridge.

C) It

hds energy between 3 and 7 kcaVmol.

D) It

is weakened in water.

68.

The strongly hydrogen bonded character of water is responsible

for

which of the

following

characteristic properties of water? Find the correct answer(s).

A) A

high heat of fusion, which allows water to act as a heat sink, such that greater heat loss is necessary

for

the freezing of water compared to other substances

of similar

molecular mass.

B)

A

high heat of vaporization, such that relatively more heat must be input to vaporize water compared to other substances of similar molecular ^mass.

C)An ability

to dissolve most polar cornpounds'

D)

An open structure makes ice less ^dense than

liquid

water, thereby making ice float, insulating the water beneath

it,

and

inhibiting

total freezing of large bodies of water.

13

bdurtcoQo: a B-lu

69. Equal volumes of molar hydrochloric acid and sulphuric acid ^are neutralizedby dilute NaOH solution and x kcal and y kcal of heat are liberated respectively. Which of the

following

is true?

A) x=y B) x=yl2

C) x=2y

D)

None of the above

70. Which of the

following

oxidant is used as an antiseptic?

A) Kr B)

KMnO2

C)

CrOr

U)

r\r\Lr3

PART C

fEach question ^has only one

right

answer.

Mark

the

right

answer. Each qaestion carries two marks. There is negative

marking.

0.66 marks

will

be

deductedfor

each wrong answer.l

Tl.Inrabbits,

^{white coat colour} is dominant over beige colour and coat colour is determined by a single ^gene.

Two

white rabbits are crossed.They produce 2 white offspring and one beige

offspring. H the beige offspring is crossed

with

one of its parents, what percent of the offspring arc expected to be white?

A)0

B) 2s

c)

50 D) 7s

72.Ifa

cross between two homozygous recessive genotlpes results

in

non-mutant progeny, the mutations are said to complement each

other.

Which of the

following

statements are

INCORRECT

ⁱⁿ this respect?

A)

Complementation is evidence that alleles are mutations

in

different genes.

B)

Non-complementation is evidence that alleles are mutations in same gene.

C) If

two recessive mutations are alleles of the same gene, then a cross between hornozygous strains yields

Fl

progeny that are mutant.

D) If

two recessive mutations are alteles of the same gene, then a cross between homozygous strains yields

Fl

progeny that are

wild

type.

L4

rl,l4tc-(Au' c

B -[z-

73. From the

following

Lineweaver-Burk plot, what can you interpret?

A)

rate lncreases as substrate concentration increases

B)

activity is independent

of

substrate concentration after ^a threshold level

C)

substrate

inhibition

^at higher concentration

D) All

of the above

74. 2,3-Bisphosphoglyceric acid (BPG) ^interacts

with

deoxygenated hemoglobin beta subunits and decrease their

afnniry for

oxygen. Given below are three oxygen saturation plots

in

absence or presence of 5

mM

and 8

mM

of BPG. What do plots 1, 2 and 3 represent?

Tissues ^Lungs

Fractional Saturation of

Ox;ygenin Hemoglobin

Pressure of Oxygen (ton)

A)

1: no BPG, 2: 5mlr{ BPG, 3: 8mM BPG

B) l:

5mM BPG, 2: no BPG, 3: 8mM BPG

C) l:

no BPG, 2: 8mM BPG, 3: 5mM BPG

D) l:

8mM

BPG,2: 5mM

BPG, 3: no BPG

75.

An

alcoholic has ^a blood alcohol concentration

of

^1.5

mM.

Assume that the Vmax

of

cytosolic alcohol dehydrogenase enzyme ^and the microsomal ethanol

oxidizing

system (MEOS) are equal and that the Km's are 1.5

mM

and ¹⁵ mM, respectively.

Identify

the correct statement.

A)

The velocity of the

Alcohol

dehydrogenase system

will

be at one-half Vmax B) The velocity of the

Alcohol

dehydrogenase system

will

be at Vmax

C) The velocity of the MEOS system

will

be at Vma:i

D) The velocity

of

the MEOS system

will

be at one-half Vmax

7ri''*

l5

Waklai c^dt'- c b-lL

76.

You purified IgG

antibody specific against antigen hen egg albumin

(HEA)

and divided

it

into three parts. Part ¹ was unfreated, par:t? was treated

with

Pepsin and part 3 was digested

with

Papain. Which of the tube (s),

1,2

^and 3 would precipitate HEA?

A)

Tube

I

and Tube 2

B)

Tube ¹

andTube3

C)

Tube ^1, Tube

2

andTube 3

D)

Tube

2andTube

³

7'l.HIV-1

was used to infect ^a macrophages and ^a T-lymphocyte. The

viral

antigens were processed and presented on the surface of both the type

of

cells. Which of the

following

is nratf\ttrDfit/\rTt ^^-^^*:-- +L^ --^^a-cina onrl nrpsenfotinn nf anfigenS?

ll\Lf'rl\-S-g\z t tvull9tiruur$ Lnw PrvwDour6 4u

O*-rr-*ogenic

peptides associate with

MHC

class

I

molecules in T-cells

B)

The

viral

immunogenic peptides associate with

MHC

class

II

molecules

in

T-cells

C)

The

viral

immunogenic peptides associate with

MHC

class

I

molecules

in

macrophages

D)

The

viral

immunogenic peptides associate with

MHC

class

I

and

MHC

class

II

molecules

in

macrophages

78. tmmunoglobulin molecules ^possess antigenic determinants ^and themselves can produce antibodies. The IgG antibodies purified from ^a mice strain

BALB/c

was injected into

(i)

rabbit and

(ii) C57BU6

mouse. What kind of anti-IgG antibodies would be formed

in

case

(i)

and (ii)?

A)

Isotypic and

ldiotypic B) Allotypic

and Isotypic

C)

Isotypic and

Allotypic D) Allotypic

and

Idiotypic

79.

For detection of levels of IgG immunoglobin

in

a patient serum, you used anti-human IgG antibody raised

in

goat as primary antibody in

yourELISA.

Which one of the

following

would you use as the secondary enzyme conjugated antibody

for

your assays?

A)

rabbit anti-goat IgG antibodY B) goat anti-rabbit IgG antibody C) rabbit anti-human IgG antibodY D) goat anti-goat IgG antibodY

;

80.

A

typical ^gene utilizes a segment of

DNA

^whose molecular weight is one

million.

Approximate$how

many turns of the

helix

does this represent?

A) ls

B)

1s0

c)

1s00

D)

1800

16

wrvrt.crk: c B-IL

81. You have been asked to make ^a solution called

X.

The composition of

X

is 50 mM Glucose, 25 mM

[ris.HCl

^{(pH 8) and 10}

mM EDTA.

^{You are} given three stock solutions:

(i) I M

Glucose,

(ii) I M Tris.HCl

^(pH 8) and

(iii)

_0.5

M EDTA.

How much of each stock solution

will

you

mix

to prepare 100

ml

of solution X?

A) 50mlof l

MGlucos

e+25mlof l MTris.HCl(pH8)+ 10mlof 0.5MEDTA+ 15mlof

HzO.

B) l0mlof t MGlucose+

5

mlof l MTris. HCl(pH 8)+4mlof 0.5 MEDTA+

⁸¹

mlof

HzO.

C)

5 mt

of

1

M

Glucose + 2.5

ml of

¹

M

Tris. HCI (pH S) +

2mlof

0. 5

M EDTA

+ 90.5 ml

of

HzO.

D)

Solution

X

^can not be made for the supplied stock solutions.

82. Assume that amino acids can be represented by spheres having a radius

of

3A.

Approximately how many amino acids could make up ^a spherical protein having a radius of 2

nm?

^;

A)

3 amino acids

B)

30 amino acids

C)

300 amino acids

D)

30000 amino acids

83. The shape of ^a red blood cell can be approximated ^{as a} disk of 7 pm

in

diameter and 3

pm

thick.

If

the cell density is close

to

1.30

fml,

how much does ^a single red blood cell weigh?

A)

1.5

x

^{10-ro g}

B) 1.5x108g

C)

1.5

x

10-6 g

D)

1.5 T ^10og

84. Suppose that negatively supercoiled

DNA with linking

number

(L) =23,

^{Twisting number} (T) = ^{25, and}

writhing

nurnber

(W)

₌ -2, is acted upon by

DNA

gyrase and ATP.

After

one catalytic cycle, what would be the values of L, T, and W?

A) L=25,T=25,W=0 B) L=24,T=25,W=-1

C) L=22,T=25,W=-3 D) L=21,T=25,W=-4

t7

t%YU*, c&p,c E - 12*

85. One parent has ^a dominant phenotype ^and the other has a recessive phenotype. Considering that both the offspring have dominant phenotype, what is the possible genotype of the parent with the dominant phenotyPe?

A)

Homozygous dominant onlY

B)

Heterozygous onlY

C)

Either homozygous dominant or heterozygous

D)

Homozygous recessive onlY

Rough

work:

18